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Second Test Physics

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions, fill-in-the-blank questions, and various levels of questions related to ray optics and optical instruments. It covers fundamental concepts such as reflection, refraction, lenses, mirrors, and the principles of optical fibers. Additionally, it includes answer keys for the multiple-choice questions and fill-in-the-blanks.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
34 views14 pages

Second Test Physics

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions, fill-in-the-blank questions, and various levels of questions related to ray optics and optical instruments. It covers fundamental concepts such as reflection, refraction, lenses, mirrors, and the principles of optical fibers. Additionally, it includes answer keys for the multiple-choice questions and fill-in-the-blanks.

Uploaded by

just scroll
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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9.

RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:


1. In reflection of light, the angle of reflection is
(A) More than incident angle (B) less than incident angle
(C) Equal to angle of incidence (D) more or less than incident angle
2. Focal length of a spherical mirror depends on
(A) Object distance (B) image distance
(C) both object and image distances (D) radius of curvature
3. When an object is placed at infinity from a spherical mirror, the image is formed at
(A) infinity (B) principal focus (C) at centre of curvature (D) pole
4. The focal length of a spherical mirror is
(A) equal to radius of curvature (B) two times the radius of curvature
(C) half of the radius of curvature (C) not depends on radius of curvature
5. For reflection in spherical mirrors, all distances are measured from the
(A) pole (B) principal focus (C) centre of curvature (D) from object
6. In refraction of light
(A) =1 (B) = constant (C) × sin r = constant (D) = constant
7. For total internal reflection of light
(A) light should travel from rarer medium to denser medium
(B) light should travel from denser medium to rarer medium
(C) light should incident along the normal
(D) the angle of incidence should be equal to 90⁰.
8. An object of finite height is placed in front of a concave mirror within its focus. It forms
(A) a real enlarged image (B) a real diminished image
(C) a virtual enlarged image (D) a virtual diminished image
9. The speed of light in a medium depends on
(A) angle of incidence (B) angle of refraction
(C) refractive index (D) its mass density
10. Refractive index of a medium depends on
(A) thickness of the medium (B) angle of incidence
(C) mass density of the medium (D) none of above
11. When a light ray travels from rarer medium to denser medium, its
(A) velocity increases (B) velocity decreases
(C) wavelength increases (D) frequency decreases
12. Snell’s law fails in the case of
(A) when light travel from denser to rarer (B) oblique incidence
(C) when light travel from rarer to denser (D) normal incidence
13. The principle of optical fibres is
(A) reflection of light (B) refraction of light
(C) dispersion of light (D) total internal reflection
14. The focal length of a lens is depends on
i) refractive index of the material
ii) radii of curvature of two surfaces
iii) diameter of the aperture
(A) only option i) is correct (B) only option i) and ii) are correct
(C) only ii and iii are correct (D) option i, ii and iii are correct
15. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact. The power of the combination is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16. The angle of minimum deviation of a prism is depends on
(A) only angle of the prism (B) only refractive index of the prism
(C) angle of incidence (D) both angle of the prism and its refractive index
17. A ray of light is incident on glass-air interface at an angle greater than the critical angle for the
pair of media. Then the ray undergoes
(A) refraction only (B) partial reflection and partial refraction
(C) total internal reflection (D) grazes the surface at the interface of the two media
18. The magnification of a refracting telescope is
(A) (B) (C) fo + fe (D) fo.fe
19. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical
telescope since
(A) a large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.
(B) a large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power.
(C) a large aperture provides a better resolution
(D) all of the above.
20. Statement i: A convex mirror is preferred over a plane mirror in vehicles to observe traffic coming
from behind.
Statement ii: Convex mirrors have large field of view and images of real objects formed by convex
mirrors are erect.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is the correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Statements i is wrong but ii is correct.
21. Statement i: The image forms formed by total internal reflections are much brighter than those
formed by mirrors or lenses.
Statement ii: In total internal reflection, the light is completely reflected and there is no loss of
intensity of light.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Both the statements are wrong.
22. Statement i: The focal length of equiconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 placed in air is equal to
radius of curvature of either face.
Statement ii: For equi-convex lens radius of curvature of both the faces is same.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Statements i is wrong but ii is correct.
23. Statement i: If a glass prism is immersed in water its angle of minimum deviation is increases.
Statement ii: Angle of minimum deviation of a prism is increases with increase in the refractive
index of the prism.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Statements i is wrong but ii is correct.
24. Statement i: In a simple microscope, the object is placed at distance slightly less than the focal
length of the objective lens.
Statement ii: When the object is placed within the focal point of a convex lens, enlarged, erect
image is formed.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Statements i is wrong but ii is correct.
25. Statement i: In compound microscope, the focal length of objective lens is large whereas the focal
length of eyepiece is small.
Statement ii: The magnification of compound microscope varies inversely to the focal lengths of
both objective lens and eye lens.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not a correct explanation for statement i
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Statements i is wrong but ii is correct.
26. Statement i: In refracting telescope, the focal length of objective lens is large whereas the focal
length of eyepiece is small.
Statement ii: The magnification of refracting telescope directly proportional to the focal length of
objective lens and varies inversely with the focal length of eye lens.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Statements i is wrong but ii is correct.

FILL IN THE BLANKS:


(inversely , normal shift, parallel, critical angle, directly, total internal reflection)
1. The bottom of a swimming pool appears to be raised above is due to ____________.
2. Optical fibres are working on the principle of ___________.
3. For total internal reflection of light, the angle of incident must be greater than ___________.
4. At minimum deviation position, the refracted ray inside the prism is ________ to the base of the prism.
5. The magnification of compound microscope is ____________ proportional to focal length of eye lens.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS


1. State the laws of reflection.
2. State the laws of refraction.
3. Give the conditions for total internal reflection.
4. Mention the relation between refractive index and critical angle.
5. What are optical fibres? What is the principle of optical fibres?
6. Mention the factors on which focal length of a lens depends.
7. Define power of the lens and give its SI unit.
8. Write the expression for refractive index of the prism in terms of angle of the prism and angle of
minimum deviation.
9. Draw the ray diagram of image formation in simple microscope when the object is at near point.
10. Draw the ray diagram of image formation in simple microscope when the object is at infinity.
11. Write the expression for magnification of the image formed in simple microscope.
12. Draw the ray diagram of image formation in compound microscope.
13. Write the expression for magnification of the image formed in compound microscope.
14. Draw the ray diagram of image formation in refracting telescope.
15. Write the expression for magnification of the image formed in refracting telescope.
16. An object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. Find the position
of image formed.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:


1. Give the sign conventions used in geometric optics.
2. Prove that, the focal length of a spherical mirror is half of its radius of curvature.
3. Give any three applications of optical fibres.
4. A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 144cm and an eye piece of focal length 6 cm.
What is the magnifying power of the telescope?

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:


1. Derive the mirror equation = + .
2. Derive the relation – + = for a refraction through a spherical surface where symbols having
their usual meaning. (OR)
Derive the relation connecting n, u, v and R for refraction through a spherical surface.
3. Derive Lens maker’s formula.
4. Obtain the expression for equivalent focal length of a combination of two thin lenses in contact.
5. Obtain the expression for refractive index of a prism in terms of angle of the prism A and angle of
minimum deviation D. (OR)
Derive the expression n = where symbols having their usual meaning.
6. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced
through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, by how much distance is the image displaced? ( 36 cm)
7. A small bulb (a point source) is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of 80 cm.
What is the radius of the circular surface of water through which light emerge out? Refractive index of
water is 1.33. ( 91 cm)
8. The radii of curvature of two surfaces of a convex lens is 0.2 m and 0.22 m. Find the focal length of the
lens if refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5. Also find the change in focal length, if it is
immersed in water of refractive index 1.33. ( f = 21 cm, Δf = 61 cm)
9. Double convex lens is to be manufactured from a glass of refractive index 1.52, with both faces of same
radius of curvature. What is the radius of curvature required if the focal length is 25 cm. What will be
new focal length when the lens is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33. (R= 26 cm, fw = 91 cm)
10. An object of height 3 cm is placed 14 cm in front of a concave lens of focal length 21 cm. Find the
position, nature and size of the image formed. ( v = + 42 cm, virtual image, 9 cm in height)
11. Two lenses of focal length 0.2 m and 0.3 m are kept in contact. Find the focal length of the combination,
Calculate powers of two lenses and combination. ( F = 0.12 cm, P1 = 5 D, P2 = 3.3 D, P = 8.3 D)
12. A prism of angle 60˚ produces angle of minimum deviation of 40˚. What is its refractive index? Calculate
the angle of incidence. ( n = 1.53, i = 50⁰)
13. A ray of light is incident at 40⁰ on one face of an equilateral prism of refractive index 1.55. Calculate the
angle of deviation as it emerges from the other surface. ( 44⁰10’ )
14. An equilateral prism is made of glass. When a beam of light is incident on a face of the prism the angle
of minimum deviation is found to be 40⁰. Calculate the refractive index of the prism. If this prism is
immersed in water of refractive index 1.33, find the new angle of minimum deviation.
( n = 1.53, D = 10.2⁰)
ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
C D B C A D B C C D B D D
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
B B D C A D B A A D B D A

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1. Normal shift, 2. Total internal reflection, 3. Critical angle, 4. Parallel, 5. Inversely proportional

************************************************************

10. WAVE OPTICS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:


1. Wave theory of light is proposed by
(A) Isaac Newton (B) Christiaan Huygens (C) Foucault (D) Snell
2. According to Huygen’s principle, the speed of the secondary wavelets is
(A) Twice that of the wave (B) zero
(C) same as the wave (D) infinite
3. To observe sustained interference pattern on a screen placed at a suitable distance in Young’s
double slit experiment, which of the following condition/s is/are necessary?
(i) Sources of light should be coherent.
(ii) Sources of light should be narrow.
(ii) Sources of light should be very close.
(A) only (i) (B) both (i) and (ii) (C) both (ii) and (iii) (D) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. Two light sources are said to be coherent when both the sources of light emit light of
(A) The same amplitude and phase (B) The same intensity and wavelength
(C) The same speed (D) The same wavelength and constant phase
difference
5. In Young’s double-slit experiment with monochromatic light, how is fringe width affected, if the
screen is moved closer to the slits?
(A) Independent (B) Remains the same (C) Increases (D) Decreases
6. What would be the resultant intensity at a point of destructive interference, if there are two
identical coherent waves of intensity I0 producing an interference pattern?
(A) 5 I0 (B) 2 I0 (C) zero (D) I0
7. Diffraction effect is exhibited by ________.
(A) only sound waves (B) only light waves (C) only matter waves (D) all types of waves
8. In single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made double of its original width. Then
the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will become
(A) narrower and fainter (B) narrower and brighter
(C) broader and fainter (D) broader and brighter
9. What is the cause of diffraction?
(A) Interference of primary wavelets (B) Interference of secondary wavelets
(C) Reflection of primary wavelets (D) Reflection of secondary wavelets
10. Which of the following phenomenon confirms the transverse nature of light waves.
(A) Polarization of light (B) Diffraction of light
(C) Dispersion of light (D) Refraction of light
11. Statement i: Wavefronts obtained from light emitted by a point source in an isotropic medium are
always spherical
Statement ii: Speed of light in isotropic medium is constant.
(A) Both the statements are true and statement ii is the correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Both the statements are true but statement ii is not correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statement i) is true but ii) is false.
(D) Both statements i) and ii) are false.
12. Statement i: Interference is not observed if the two coherent slit are broad.
Statement ii: A broad source is equivalent to many narrow slit sources.
(A) Both the statements are true and statement ii is the correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Both the statements are true but statement ii is not correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statement i) is true but ii) is false. (D) Both statements i) and ii) are false.
13. Statement i: When a thin transparent sheet is placed in front of both the slits of Young's
experiment, the fringe width will remains same.
Statement ii: In Young's experiment, the fringe width is directly proportional to wavelength of
the source
(A) Both statement i) and ii) are true and ii) is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) Both statements are true but ii) is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) Statement i) is true but ii) is false.
(D) Both statements i) and ii) are false.

FILL IN THE BLANKS:


(diffraction, decreases, spherical, interference, increases, polarisation)
1. A wavefront coming from a point source of light is a __________ wavefront.
2. In Young’s double slit experiment if the blue light is replaced by a red light, then the fringe width will
be _______________.
3. The modification in the distribution of light intensity due to superposition of two or more light wave is
called ______________of light.
4. The colours on a compact disc is due to _____________ light.
5. If the light from an ordinary sodium lamp is passes through a polaroid sheet. Then the intensity of
emergent light will ______________.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:


1. What is a wavefront? Name the wavefront emitted by a point source.
2. Write the conditions for constructive interference in terms of phase difference.
3. Write the conditions for constructive interference in terms of path difference.
4. Write the conditions for destructive interference in terms of phase difference.
5. Write the conditions for destructive interference in terms of path difference.
6. Write the expression for fringe width of interference pattern in Young’s double slit experiment and
explain the terms.
7. State and explain Malus’ law of polarization of light.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Explain the Huygen’s wavefront concept.
2. Derive Snell’s law using Huygen’s principle.
3. Using Huygen’s principle, show that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection during
plane wave front reflected by a plane surface.
4. What is interference of light? Write the conditions for constructive interference and destructive
interference in terms of path difference.
5. Describe the intensity distribution in diffraction pattern at single slit.
6. Write any three differences between interference and diffraction of light.
7. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction patter
is observed on a screen 1m away. It is observed that the first minimum is at a distance of 2.5 mm from
the centre of the screen. Find the width of the slit. ( 0.2 mm)
8. Light of wavelength 5500 A⁰ falls normally on a slit width 22.0 ×10-5 cm. Calculate the angular position
of the first minimum on either side of the central maxima. ( 14.48⁰ )
9. Mention the any three applications of Polaroids
10. Two polaroids are kept parallel to one other such that their pass axes are making an 60⁰ to each other. If
an unpolarized light of intensity I falls on the first polaroid find the intensity of light coming out of the
other.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Give the theory of interference and hence arrive the conditions of constructive and destructive
interference pattern. OR Derive the expression for resultant amplitude when two coherent waves
are superpose on each other. Write conditions of constructive and destructive interference pattern.
2. With a schematic diagram, explain the Young’s double slit experiment.
3. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths of 4200 A⁰ and 5600 A⁰ is used to obtain interference
fringes in Young’s double slits experiment. Distance between the slits is 0.3 mm and distance between
slits and screen is 1.5 m. Compute the least distance of the point from the central maximum where the
bright fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide. (8.4 mm)
4. In Young’s double slit experiment, distance between the slits is 0.5mm. When the screen is kept at a
distance of 100cm from the slits, the distance of 9th bright fringe from the central fringe is 8.835mm.
Find the wavelength of light used. (4908 A⁰)
5. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are separated by 0.3mm and the screen is placed at a distance
of 1m from the slits. The distance between the first dark fringe and fourth bright fringe is found to be
0.6cm. Calculate the wavelength of the light used. (5143 A⁰)
6. In Young’s double slit experiment, distance between the slits is 0.3 mm. The screen is kept at a distance
of 1.2 from the slits. If the wavelength of light used is 600 nm, find the position of 5th bright fringe and
3rd dark fringe. (x5 = 1.2 cm, x3 = 0.6 cm)

ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 11 12 13

B C D D D C D B B A A A B C A

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1. spherical; 2. increase; 3. interference; 4.diffraction; 5. Decrease

*************************************************************************************
11. DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:


1. Cathode ray particles are same as
(A) Protons (B) Electrons (C) α – particles (D) Neutrons
2. In discharge tube, the cathode ray particles will travel with the speed of
(A) 3 × 108ms-1 (B) 6 × 107ms-1 (C) 2 × 108ms-1 (D) 2 × 107ms-1
3. The sufficient energy by the electron to overcome the attractive pull of metal surface is called
(A)Work function (B) Photoelectric effect (C) Stopping Potential(D) Field emission
4. Some alkali metals emit electrons when they are just illuminated by
(A) UV rays (B) visible light (C) X-rays (D) Gamma rays
5. Some metals emit electrons when they are just illuminated by
(A) Infrared rays (B) Microwaves (C) UV rays (D) visible light
6. The graph of photoelectric current versus intensity of incident radiation (for υ > υ0)
(A) A straight line with y-intercept (B) A straight line with x-intercept
(C) A straight line passing through origin (D) A non-linear curve
7. In photoelectric effect, the time lag of electron emission is
(A)10-9s (B) 10-5s (C) 10-8 s (D) 105s
8. The de Broglie wavelength of a moving particle is independent of _____________ of the particle.
(A) Charge (B) Mass (C) Speed (D) momentum
9. Emission of electrons from a metal surface by heating is called
(A) Photoelectric emission (B) Thermionic emission
(C) Field emission (D) Secondary emission
10. In photoelectric effect experiment if only the frequency of incident radiation is increased, then
(A) The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons decreases.
(B) The stopping potential increases
(C) The photoelectric current increases
(D) The photoelectric current decreases
11. Which experiment proved that the charge is quantized?
(A) Oil drop experiment (B) Davisson and Germer experiment
(C) α-ray scattering experiment (D) Franck – Hertz experiment
12. The particle behavior of light was confirmed by following experiments
i) A H Compton, on scattering of X-rays from electrons
ii) A Einstein, for photoelectric effect
iii) Millikan, for charge of electrons
iv) J.J Thomson’s, on discharge tube experiment
Choose the correct option
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii) (B) (i), (ii) & (iv) (C) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (D) all of the above
13. Photon energy is independent of
(A) Intensity of radiation (B) frequency of radiation
(C) wavelength of radiation (D) none of these
14. In a photon-particle collision, which of the following is conserved
(A) Only total energy is conserved (B) Only total momentum is conserved
(C) Both total momentum and total energy are conserved
(D) Neither total momentum nor total energy is conserved
15. The gathering and focusing mechanism of light by the eye lens is described by
(A) Wave nature of light (B) Particle nature of light
(C) Both A & B (D) neither A nor B
16. Macroscopic particles in our daily life do not show wave-like properties, because
(A) They are not associated with waves (B) Their wavelength is extremely high
(C) Their wavelength is zero (D) Their wavelength is negligibly small
17. The absorption of light energy by retina of eye is described by
(A) Wave nature of light (B) Particle nature of light
(C) Both A & B (D) neither A nor B
18. The value of e/m was found to be
i) Dependent on nature of metal.
ii) Independent of the nature of metal
iii) Dependent on the gas in discharge tube
iv) Independent on the gas in discharge tube.
Choose the correct option
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (ii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iii)
19. The following statements relating wave theory to explain photoelectric emission are
Statement – I: The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron is directly proportional to
intensity of light.
Statement – II: The frequency of radiation does not depend on photoelectric emission.
(A) Both I and II are true and II is the correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not the correct explanation of I.
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false
20. The slope of stopping potential (V0) versus frequency (υ) in Einstein’s Photoelectric equation is
(A) ϕ0/ h (B) h/e (C) ϕ0/h (D) h/e2
21. In a photoelectric experiment, the wavelength of incident radiation is reduced from 6000Å to
5000Å then
(A) the frequency will decrease
(B) Stopping potential will increase
(C) Kinetic energy of emitted electrons will decrease
(D) the value of work function will increase
22. Which of the following figures represents the variation of particle momentum with associated De
Broglie wavelength?

(A) (B) (C) (D)


P P P P

λ λ λ λ

FILL IN THE BLANKS:


(kinetic energy, Heinrich Hertz, intensity, wave, particle, photon)
1. The phenomenon of photoelectric emission was discovered by ______________
2. Stopping potential is the measure of _________________ of liberated electrons
3. The Maxwell’s equations of electromagnetism established the __________ nature of light.
4. In interaction with matter, light behaves as if it is made up of packet of energy called ___________ .
5. During photoelectric emission, the number of photoelectron emitted is directly proportional to
________________of incident light.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:


1. On what factors the work function of the metal depend?
2. Define electron volt. Write its value.
3. Mention the different types of electron emission
4. Write Einstein’s equation of photoelectric effect and explain the terms
5. Explain the Hertz observation on photoelectric effect.
6. Show graphically how the photocurrent varies with stopping potential for different frequencies but same
intensity of incident radiation.
7. Show the variation of stopping potential with frequency of the incident radiation graphically
8. Find the maximum frequency of X-rays produced by 30 kV electrons. [υmax = 7.2 × 1018 Hz]
9. Calculate the stopping potential of electrons emitted from cesium metal if maximum kinetic energy
is 0.346 eV. [ V0 = 0.346V]
10. The photoelectric cut off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5 V. What is the maximum kinetic energy
of photoelectrons emitted? [Kmax = 2.4 × 10-19 J]
11. Calculate the de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron moving with a speed of 2 × 105 ms-1.
Given h = 6.625 × 10-34 Js and mass of electron m = 9.1 × 10-31kg [ λ = 3.636 nm]

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS:


1. Explain briefly the Hallwach’s experimental observation on photoelectric effect.
2. Write the experimental observation of photoelectric effect.
3. Write any three properties of photon.
4. Explain briefly the Lenard’s experimental observations on photoelectric effect.
5. An alpha particle, a proton and an electron are moving with equal kinetic energy. Which one of these
particles has the longest de-Broglie wavelength? Give reason.
6. The work function of certain metal is 4.2 eV. Will this metal give photoelectric emission for incident
radiation of wavelength 330 nm? [λ0 = 295 nm, λ > λ0 no photoemission]

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:


1. a) Who proposed the dual nature of matter? (1)
b) What are matter waves? (1)
c) Define the terms: i) Photoelectric saturation current ii) Threshold frequency
iii) Stopping potential (3)
2. a) Mention the equation for de-Broglie’s wavelength of matter waves of a moving particle and explain
the terms. (2)
b) Using Einstein’s photoelectric equation, explain the experimental results of photoelectric effect. (3)
3. a) With a neat diagram, describe an experiment to study the photoelectric effect. (3)
b) How does photocurrent and stopping potential depends on intensity of incident radiation in
photoelectric effect. (2)
4. The work function of caesium metal is 2.14 eV. when light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is incident on the
metal surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. Find a) Energy of incident photon b)Maximum kinetic
energy of photoelectrons. [ E = 2.486eV, (K.E)max = 0.346 eV]
14
5. Light of frequency 2.4 × 10 Hz is incident on a metal surface. Electrons with their maximum speed of
7.5 × 105 ms-1 are ejected from the surface. Calculate the threshold frequency of the metal surface for
the photoemission of electrons and work function of the metal surface. Given: Planck’s constant
h = 6.625 × 10-34 Js and mass of electron m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg. [υ0 = 4.55 × 1014 Hz, ϕo = 1.88 Ev or
3.01 × 10-19 J]
6. A monochromatic source of light of power 36 W emits photons of wavelength 589 nm. Calculate (a)
Energy of photon emitted by the source (b) Number of photons emitted by the source in one second
[ E = 3.37 × 10-19 J, N = 10.67 × 1019 photons/s]
7. Light of frequency 7.21 × 1014 Hz is incident on a metal surface. The cut-off wavelength for photoelectric
emission from the metal surface is 540 nm. Calculate the speed of the photoelectrons emitted from the
surface. Given: Planck’s constant h = 6.625 × 10-34 Js and mass of electron m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg.
[ v = 4.91 × 105 ms-1]
8. When light of wavelength 400 nm is incident on a photosensitive surface, the stopping potential for the
photoelectrons emitted is found to be 0.96 V. When light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on the same
photosensitive surface, the stopping potential is found to be 0.34 V. Calculate the Planck’s constant.
Given: speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 ms-1 and electronic charge e = 1.6 × 10-19 C.
[h = 6.625 × 10-34 Js]
ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
B B A B C C A A B C A C A C A D B B A B B D

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1. Heinrich Hertz, 2. kinetic energy, 3. wave, 4. photon, 5. Intensity

********************************************************************************************

12. ATOMS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. The condensed matter and dense gases at all temperature emit electromagnetic radiation due to
(A) High temperature (B) Oscillations of atoms and molecules
(C) Head on collision between atoms and molecules (D) None of these
2. The source of α-particle in Geiger-Marsden experiment is
(A) radium-226 (B) bismuth - 214 (C) radon - 222 (D) cobalt - 60
3. The thickness of gold foil in α-particle scattering experiment
(A) 1.1 mm (B) 1.2 × 10-4mm (C) 2.1 × 10-4mm (D) 2.1 cm
4. The detector in α-particle scattering experiment is coated with
(A) silver nitrate screen (B) phosphorescent (C) barium sulphide (D)zinc sulphide
5. The light emitted by mercury vapour lamp is due to
Statement I: Interaction between the individual atoms
Statement II: The average spacing between the atoms is large
(A) Both I and II are true and II is correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false.
6. From kinetic theory, the size of an atom was known to be
(A) 10-10 m (B) 10-14 m (C) 10-18 m (D) 10-22 m
7. The size of atom is about ___________ times larger than the size of the nucleus
(A) 102 to 103 (B)103 to 104 (C) 104 to 105 (D)105 to 106
8. The α-particles are nuclei of
(A) H-atom (B) H+ - atom (C) He – atom (D) He2+ - atom
9. Rutherford α-particles scattering experiment determines the size of
(A) Nucleus (B) Electron (C) Proton (D) Neutron
10. The negative sign in Electrostatic Potential energy of an electron signifies that
(A) Potential energy of an electron is unstable (B) Electrostatic force is in the – r direction.
(C) Kinetic energy of all electron is constant (D) None of these.
11. The emission line spectrum is a characteristics of
(A) a molecule (B) a solid (C) an atom (D) a liquid
12. The emission line spectrum serves as
(A) Paper print of gases (B) Photo print of gases
(C) Colour print of gases (D) Finger print of gases
13. Bohr’s atomic model imitates
(A) sun-earth system (B) earth-moon system (C) sun-planet system (D) sun-comet system
14. The principal quantum number for Bohr Radius is
(A) n2 = 4 (B) n2 = 9 (C) n2 = 1 (D) n2 = 16
15. The minimum energy required to free the electron from the ground state of the hydrogen atom is
called
(A) first excitation energy (B) zero potential energy
(C) excitation energy (D) ionisation energy
16. According to Louis De Broglie, waves associated with orbital electrons are
(A) Progressive wave (B) Stationary wave (C) Longitudinal wave (D) Continuous wave
17. Bohr model is applicable to
(A) H atom (B) He+ atom (C) Li++ atom (D) All of these
18. For an electron revolving around the nucleus,
(A) kinetic energy and potential energy are positive, total energy is negative
(B) kinetic energy is positive, potential energy and total energy are negative
(C) potential energy is negative, kinetic energy and total energy are positive
(D) kinetic energy and potential energy are negative, total energy is positive.
19. Statement I: The atom is electrically neutral.
Statement II: An atom contains some positive charge to neutralize few negative charge of the
electrons
(A) Both I and II are true and II is correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false.
20. Statement I: Many of α-particles pass through the gold foil in α-particle scattering experiment
Statement II: Only about 14% of the incident α-particles scatter by more than 10.
(A) Both I and II are true and II is correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false.
21. When an electron in Hydrogen atom revolves in stationary orbit, it
(A) does not radiate energy though its velocity changes
(B) does not radiate energy and velocity remains unchanged
(C) radiates energy but its velocity is unchanged
(D) radiates energy with the change of velocity
22. Radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.53Å. The radius of its fourth orbit will be
(A) 0.193Å (B) 4.25Å (C) 2.12Å (D) 8.48Å
23. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to an excited state
(A) potential energy increases and kinetic energy decreases
(B) potential energy decreases and kinetic energy increases
(C) Both kinetic energy and potential energy increases
(D) Both kinetic energy and potential energy decreases
24. According to classical theory,
Statement I: The electron will fall into the nucleus
Statement II: An accelerated electron emits radiation in circular path
(A) Both I and II are true and II is correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false.

FILL IN THE BLANKS:


(Nucleus, -13.6eV, +13.6eV, Different, Dark, Bright)
1. The entire mass of an atom is concentrated in a small volume called _______________.
2. Energy of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen atom is _____________.
3. Ionization energy of the hydrogen atom is __________________
4. Line emission spectrum consist of bright line on a _____________background.
5. Line absorption spectrum consist of dark line on a ____________ background.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:


1. Write the two limitations of Bohr’s atom model.
2. Mention the different types of atomic model.
3. What is ionization energy of an electron? Give its value for ground state of H atom.
4. What is the energy for highest energy state in H atom? How does energy states arranged as principal
quantum number increases.
5. What does the negative sign in total energy of the electron signifies? What happens if total energy is
positive?
6. What is Bohr radius? Write its formula.
7. Mention the expression for energy of the nth stationary orbit of hydrogen atom. Explain its terms.
8. Draw the trajectories traced by different alpha particles in Geiger – Marsden experiment .
9. Calculate the energy required to excite an electron from ground state to second excited state. [ 12.09 eV]

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:


1. Write the three postulates of Bohr’s atom model
2. Give De-Broglie’s explanation of Bohr’s second postulate of quantization of angular momentum
3. Draw the neat diagram representing the Schematic arrangement of Geiger-Marsden setup for the alpha
particle scattering.
4. Define impact parameter. What are the angle of scattering for a) minimum impact parameter; b) larger
impact parameter
5. Explain J J Thomson’s plum pudding model on atomic structure.
6. Draw neat labeled diagram for energy level of H atom.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Derive an expression for energy of an electron in nth stationary orbit of hydrogen atom by assuming
the expression for radius.
2. A Hydrogen atom initially in the ground level absorbs a photon, which excites it to the n = 4 level.
Determine the wavelength and frequency of photon. [ λ = 9.75 × 10-8 m, υ = 3.08 × 1015 Hz]
3. Using the Bohr’s model calculate the speed of the electron in the hydrogen atom in n = 1, 2 levels and
also calculate the orbital period in each of these levels.
[ v1 = 2.18 × 106 ms-1, T1 = 1.528 × 10-16 s, v2 = 1.09 × 106 ms-1, T2 = 12.22 × 10-16 s]
4. It is found experimentally that 13.6eV energy is required to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton and
an electron. Compute the orbital radius and the velocity of the electron in a hydrogen atom.
[ r = 5.3 × 10-11 m, v = 2.2 × 106 ms-1]
5. In a Geiger Marsden experiment, what is the distance of closest approach to the nucleus of a 7.7 MeV,
α-particle before it comes momentarily to rest and reverses its direction? [ d = 30 fm]
6. The electron in a given Bohr orbit has a total energy of – 1.5 eV. Calculate its a) kinetic energy b)
potential energy c) wavelength of emitted light, when the electron makes a transition to the ground state.
Given: Ground state energy = – 13.6 eV. [ K = 1.5 eV, U = – 3eV, λ = 1022.7 Å]

ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:


1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
B B C D A A C D A B C D
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
C C D B D B B C A D A A

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1.nucleus 2. -13.6eV, 3. +13.6eV 4. dark 5. bright
********************************************************************************************

13. NUCLEI
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. Nucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists of
(A) 11 electrons, 11 protons and 13 neutrons (B) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons
(C) 11 protons and 13 neutrons (D) 11 protons and 13 electrons
2. Isotopes are atoms having
(A) Same number of protons but different number of neutrons
(B) Same number of neutrons but different number of protons
(C) Same number of protons and neutrons
(D) None of the above
3. The radius of a nucleus of a mass number A is directly proportional to
(A) A3 (B) A (C) A2/3 (D) A1/3
4. Which of the following is correct for nuclear forces
(A) Short ranged attractive and charge independent
(B) Short ranged attractive and charge dependent
(C) Long ranged repulsive and charge independent
(D) Long ranged repulsive and charge dependent
5. Density of any nucleus is
(A) 2.29 × 1010 kgm-3 (B) 2.29 × 1017 kgm-3 (C) 2.29 × 1012 kgm-3 (D) 2.29 × 1013 kgm-3

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