DATE – SET –

TIME – 3HRS TOTAL MARK – 720

Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options
with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 45 questions in
each subject.
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer
Sheet.
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copy) to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall, The candidates are allowed to take away this Test
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Regulations of this examination.
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the Attendance Sheet.
PHYSICS
1. The Richardson equation is given by I = AT²e- (c) [𝑀𝐿 𝑇 ] (d) [𝑀 𝐿 𝑇 ]
B/kT. The dimensional formula for AB² is same 3. A body starts from rest and travels a distance
as that for x with uniform acceleration, then it travels a
(a) 𝐼𝑇 (b) Kt distance 2x with uniform speed, finally it
(c) 𝑙𝑘 (d) 1 𝑘²/𝑇 travels a distance 3x with uniform retardation
2. Turpentine oil is flowing through a capillary and comes to rest. If the complete motion of
tube of length 𝑙 and radius r. The pressure the particle is along a straight line, then the
difference the two ends of the tube is p. The ratio of its average velocity to maximum
viscosity of oil is given by:𝑛 =
( )
. Here v velocity is
(a) 2/5 (b) 3/5
is velocity of oil at a distance x from the axis
(c) 4/5 (d) 6/7
of the tube. From this relation, the
4. A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity
dimensional formula of n is
free space at a height of 10 m above the floor.
(a) [𝑀𝐿 𝑇 ] (b) [𝑀𝐿𝑇 − ¹]
 He throws a stone of 0.5 kg mass downwards (c) Work done by friction over a closed path is
with a speed 2 m/s. When the stone reaches zero.
the floor, the distance of the man above the (d) No potential energy can be associated with
floor will be: friction.
(a) 9.9m (b) 10.1m 10. A one-ton car moves with a constant velocity
(c) 10m (d) 20m of 15 𝑚𝑠 on a rough horizontal road. The
5. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the total resistance to the motion of the car is
horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at 12% of the weight of the car. The power
its highest point as seen from the point of required to keep the car moving with the
projection is same constant velocity of 15 𝑚𝑠 is [Take g =
(a) 60° (b) 𝑡𝑎𝑛 10𝑚𝑠 ]
√ (a) 9kW (b)18kW
(c) 𝑡𝑎𝑛 (d) 45° (c) 24kW (d) 36 kW
6. The position vector of a particle 𝑅⃗ as a 11. A couple produces
function of time is given by 𝑅⃗ = 4 sin(2nt)𝚤̂ + (a) purely linear motion
4cos(2nt)𝚥̂ where R is in meter, t in seconds (b) purely rotational motion
and 𝚤̂ and 𝚥̂ denote unit vectors along x-and y- (c) linear and rotational motion
directions, respectively. Which one of the (d) no motion
following statements is wrong for the motion 12. Point masses 1, 2, 3 and 4 kg are lying at the
of particle? point (0, 0, 0), (2, 0, 0), (0,3, 0) and (-2, -2, 0)
respectively. The moment of inertia of this
(a) Magnitude of acceleration vector is where v
system about x-axis will be
is the velocity of particle (a) 43 kgm² (b) 34kgm²
(b) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 (c) 27kgm² (d) 72 kgm²
meter/second 13. A satellite of mass M is moving in a circle of
(c) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 radius R under a centripetal force given by (-
meter. k/R²), where k is a constant. Then
(d) Acceleration vector is along -𝑅⃗ (a) The kinetic energy of the particle is R
7. What is the maximum value of the force F
such that the block shown in the (b) The total energy of the particle is ( )
arrangement, does not move? (c) The kinetic energy of the particle is −
(d) The potential energy of the particle is
14. The change in the value of 'g' at a height 'h'
above the surface of the earth is the same as
(a) 20 N (b) 10N at a depth 'd' below the surface of earth.
(c) 12N (d) 15N When both 'd' and 'h' are much smaller than
8. A block has been placed on an inclined plane the radius of earth, then which one of the
with the slope angle 0, block slides down the following is correct?
plane at constant speed. The coefficient of (a) d= (b) d=
kinetic friction is equal to (c) d=h (d) d=2h
(a) 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 (b) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 15. The graph given is a stress-strain curve for
(c) g (d) 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
9. Identify the false statement from the
following
(a) Work-energy theorem is not independent of
Newton's second law.
(b) Work-energy theorem holds in all inertial
frames.
(a) elastic objects (b) plastics
(c) elastomers (d) None of these (c) 15J/K (d) 100 J/K
16. A metal rod of Young's modulus 2 × 10 22. A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It
𝑁𝑚 undergoes an elastic strain of 0.06%. is required to remove 600 calories of heat
The energy per unit volume stored in J m³ is every second in order to keep the
(a) 3600 (b) 7200 temperature of the refrigerated space
(c) 10800 (d) 14400 constant. The power required is: (Take 1 cal =
17. Two liquids of densities d, and d, are flowing 4.2 joule)
in identical capillary tubes uder the same (a) 2.365 W (b) 23.65 W
pressure difference. If 𝑡 , and 𝑡 , are time (c) 236.5 W (d) 2365 W
taken for the flow of equal quantities (mass) 23. A gas is enclosed in a cube of side 1. What will
of liquids, then the ratio of coefficient of be the change in momentum of the molecule,
viscosity of liquids must be if it suffers an elastic collision with the plane
(a) (b) wall parallel to yz-plane and rebounds with
the same velocity ? [(𝑉 , 𝑉 & 𝑉 ) initial
(c) (d) velocities of the gas molecules]
(a) 𝑚𝑣 (b) zero
18. Let 𝑇 , be surface tension between solid and
(c) −𝑚𝑣 (d) −2𝑚𝑣
air, 𝑇 , be the surface tension between solid
24. What will be the ratio of number of molecules
and liquid and T be the surface tension
of a monoatomic and a diatomic gas in a
between liquid and air. Then in equilibrium,
vessel, if the ratio of their partial pressures is
for a drop of liquid on a clean glass plate, the
5:3?
correct relation is (𝜃 is angle of contact)
(a) 5:1 (b) 3:1
(c) 5:3 (d) 3:5
25. The displacement of a particle from its mean
position (in metre) is given by y=0.2 sin
(10πt+1.5) cos (10πt + 1.5 π) The motion of
(a) cos 𝜃 = (b) cos 𝜃 = particle is
(a) periodic but not SHM
(c) cos 𝜃 = (d) cos 𝜃 = (b) non-periodic
19. Assuming the Sun to be a spherical body of (c) simple harmonic motion with period 0.1s
radius R at a temperature of TK, evaluate the (d) simple harmonic motion with period 0.2s.
total radiant powerd incident of Earth at a 26. A point particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing
distance r from the Sun S.H.M. of amplitude 0.1 m. When the particle
(a) 4𝜋 𝑅 𝜎 (b) 𝜋 𝑅 𝜎 (c) passes through the mean position, its kinetic
energy is 8 × 10 joule. Obtain the equation
𝜋 𝑅 𝜎 (d) 𝑅 𝜎 of motion of this particle, if the initial phase
20. A metal ball immersed in alcohol weighs 𝑊 of oscillation is 45°.
at 0°C and 𝑤 at 59°C. The coefficient of (a) 𝑦 = 0.1𝑠𝑖𝑛 ±4𝑡 +
cubical expansion of the metal is less than
that of alcohol. Assuming that the density of (b) 𝑦 = 0.2𝑠𝑖𝑛 ±4𝑡 +
the metal is large compared to that of (c) 𝑦 = 0.1𝑠𝑖𝑛 ±2𝑡 +
alcohol, it can be shown that
(d) 𝑦 = 0.2𝑠𝑖𝑛 ±2𝑡 +
(a) 𝑊 > 𝑤 (b) 𝑊₁ = 𝑊₂
(c) 𝑊 < 𝑤 (d) 𝑊 = (𝑤 /2) 27. A source of sound A emitting waves of
21. During an adiabatic process an object does frequency 1800 Hz is falling towards ground
100J of work and its temperature decreases with a terminal speed v. The observer B on
by 5K. During another process it does 25J of the ground directly beneath the source
work and its temperature decreases by 5K. Its receives waves of frequency 2150 Hz. The
heat capacity for 2nd process is source A receives waves, reflected from
(a) 20 J/K (b) 24 J/K
 ground of frequency nearly: (Speed of 34. Suppose the drift velocity 𝑣 in a material
sound=343 m/s) varied with the applied electric field E as
(a) 2150 Hz (b) 2500 Hz 𝑣 √E. Then V - I graph for a wire made of such
(c) 1800 Hz (d) 2400 Hz a material is best given by:
28. Consider the three waves𝑧 , 𝑧 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑧 ,
z₁ = A sin (kx-𝜔t)
𝑧 =A sin (kx+𝜔t)
𝑧 =A sin (ky-𝜔t)
Which of the following represents a standing
wave?
(a)z₁ +𝑧 (b) 𝑧 + 𝑧 35. An electron travelling with a speed u along
(c) 𝑧 + z₁ (d) z₁ +𝑧 + 𝑧 the positive x-axis enters into a region of
29. There is an electric field E in x-direction. If the magnetic field where B=𝐵 𝑘 (x>0). It comes
work done on moving a charge of 0.2 C out of the region with speed v then
through a distance of 2 m along a line making Photo
an angle 60° with x-axis is 4 J, then what is the (a) v=u at y>0 (b) v=u at y<0
value of E? (c) v>at y>0 (d) v> at y<0
(a) 3 N/C (b) 4N/C
(c) 5N/C (d) 20 N/C
30. A surface has the area vector 𝐴⃗=(2𝚤̂+3𝚥̂)m².
The flux of an electric field through it if the
field is 𝐸 = 4𝚤̂
(a) 8V-m (b) 12V-m
(c) 20V-m (d) zero 36. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a
31. Equipotentials at a great distance from a voltmeter, then we must connect with the
collection of charges whose total sum is not ammeter a
zero are approximately (a) low resistance in parallel
(a) spheres (b) planes (b) high resistance in parallel
(c) paraboloids (d) ellipsoids (c) high resistance in series
32. Which of the following figure shows the (d) low resistance in series
correct equipotential surfaces of a system of 37. If a magnetic dipole of moment M situated in
two positive charges? the direction of a magnetic field B is rotated
by 180°, then the amount of work done is
(a) MB (b) 2MB
(c) (d) 0
√
38. A bar magnet is oscillating in the earth's
magnetic field with a period T. What happens
33. In the given circuit diagram when the current
to its period of motion, if its mass is
reaches steady state in the circuit, the charge
quadrupled
on the capacitor of capacitance C will be:
(a) motion remains simple harmonic with new
period = T/2
(b) motion remains simple harmonic with new
period = 2 T
(c) motion remains simple harmonic with new
period = 4T
(d) motion remains simple harmonic and the
period stays nearly constant
(a) CE( (b) CE
) ( ) 39. An LCR series circuit is connected to a source
(c) CE ( )
(d) CE ( ) of alternating current. At resonance, the
 applied voltage and the current flowing 46. Acctal is produced by reacting an alcohol in
through the circuit will have a phase the presence of dry HCI with
difference of (a) acetaldehyde (b) ketone (c) ether
(a) 𝜋 (b) (d) carboxylic acid
(c) (d) 0 47. Which of the following, upon treatment with
tert-BuONa followed by addition of bromine
40. What is the value of inductance L for which water, fails to decolourize the colour of
the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit
bromine?
with
C= 10 µF and o=1000s-12
(a) 1mH
(b) cannot be calculated unless R is known
(c) 10mH
(d) 100mH
41. A point source of electromagnetic radiation
has an average power output of 1500 W. The
maximum value of electric field at a distance 48. Which of the following is not used in Friedel-
of 3m from this sources in Vm-¹ is Crafts reaction?
(a) 500 (b) 100 (a) N-Phenyl acetanilide (b) Bromobenzene
(c) (d) (c) Benzene (d) Chlorobenzene
42. Frequency of a wave is 6 × 10 Hz. The wave 49. Which will give a white precipitate
is 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂 , in aqueous solution
(a) radiowave (b) microwave (a) [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻 ) 𝐶𝑙] (𝑁𝑂 )
(c) x-ray (d) ultraviolet (b) [𝑃𝑡(𝑁𝐻 ) ]𝐶𝑙
43. The graph between angle of deviation (𝛿) and (c) [𝑃𝑡(𝑒𝑛)𝐶𝐼
angle of incidence (i) for a triangular prism is (d) [𝐶𝑢(𝑁𝐻 ) ]𝑆𝑂
represented by 50. [𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑙 (𝑃(𝐶₂𝐻₃)₂(𝐶𝐻₃)} ] cxhibits
temperature dependent magnetic behaviour
(paramagnetic/diamagnetic). The
coordination geometrics of 𝑁𝑖 in the
paramagnetic and diamagnetic states are
respectively
(a) tetrahedral and tetrahedral
(b) square planar and square planar
(c) tetrahedral and square planar
44. The ratio of thickness of plates of two
(d) Square planar and tetrahedral
transparent medium A and B is 6: 4. If light
51. The basic character of the transition metal
takes equal time in passing through them,
monoxides follows the order
then refractive index of A with respect to B
(AtomicNos., Ti-22, V-23, Cr=24, Fe=26)
will be
(a) 𝑇𝑖𝑂 > 𝑉𝑂 > 𝐶𝑟𝑂 > 𝐹𝑒𝑂
(a) 1.33 (b) 1.75
(b) 𝑉𝑂 > 𝐶𝑟𝑂 > 𝑇𝑖𝑂 > 𝐹𝑒𝑂
(c) 1.4 (d) 1.5
(c) 𝐶𝑟𝑂 > 𝑉𝑂 > 𝐹𝑒𝑂 > 𝑇𝑖𝑂
45. Unpolarised light is incident on a dielectric of
(d) 𝑇𝑖𝑂 > 𝐹𝑒𝑂 > 𝑉𝑂 > 𝐶𝑟𝑂
refractive inde √3. What is the angle of
52. Excited state configuration of Mn2+ is
incidence if the reflected beam is completely
(a) 𝑡 𝑔 (b) 𝑡 𝑔𝑒
polarised?
(c) 𝑡 𝑔𝑐 (d) 𝑡 𝑐
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) 60° (d) 75° 53. The temperature dependence of rate
CHEMISTRY constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written
in terms of Arrhenius equation, 𝑘 = 𝐴. 𝑒
 Activation energy (𝐸 ) of the reaction can be (a) large size of 𝐵𝑟 and 𝐼
calculated by plotting (b) strong oxidising character of 𝑝𝑏
(a) k vs (b) log k vs (c) strong reducing character of 𝑝𝑏
(d) low electronegativity of 𝐵𝑟 and 𝐼
(c) log k vs (d) k vs T 61. Name of the following reaction is
54. For the reaction system:
2𝑁𝑂(𝑔) + 𝑂 (𝑔) → 2𝑁𝑂 (𝑔) voluine is
suddenly reduced to half its value by increasing
the pressure on it. If the reaction is of first order (a) Claisen Condensation
with respect to O₂ and second order with respect (b) Diel'sAlder reaction
to NO, the rate of reaction will (c) Dieckmann cyclisation
(a) diminish to one-eighth of its initial value (d) Michael addition reaction
(b) increase to cight times of its initial value 62. The most suitable catalyst for the
(c) increase to four times of its initial value hydrogenation of
(d) diminish to one-fourth of its initial value 2-Hexyne→ 2-cis-Hexeneis
55. How much charge is required, when I mole of (a) 𝑃𝑑 − 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂 (b) (𝑃ℎ 𝑃) 𝑅ℎ𝐶𝑙
𝐶𝑟 𝑜 reduce to form 1 mole of Cr³+? (c) 10% 𝑃𝑑 𝐶 (d) 𝑅𝑎𝑛𝑒𝑦 𝑁𝑖
(a) GF (b) 3F 63. Consider thiol anion (RS) and alkoxy anion
(c) IF (d) 2F (RO). Which of the following statements is
56. In electrolysis of dilute 𝐻 𝑆𝑂 using platinum correct?
electrodes (a) 𝑅𝑆 is less basic but more nuclcophilic than
(a) 𝐻 is evolved at cathode RO-
(b) 𝑁𝐻 is produced at anode (b) 𝑅𝑆 is more basic and more nucleophilic than
(c) 𝐶𝑙 is obtained at cathode RO-
(d) 𝑂 is produced (c) 𝑅𝑆 is more basic but less nucleophilic than
57. At 80° C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid RO-
'A' is 520 mm Hg and that of pure liquid 'B' is (d) 𝑅𝑆 𝑖𝑠 less basic and less nucleophilic than
1000 mm Hg. If a mixture of solution of A' and RO-
'B' boils at 80° C and I atın pressure, the 64. Consider the following compounds.
amountof A' in the mixture is (1 at
ın=760mmHg)
(a) 52 mol percent (b) 34 mol percent
(c) 48 mol percent (d) 50 mol percent
65. The chemical that undergoes self oxidation
58. The observed osinotic pressure for a 0.10 M
and self reduction in the same reaction is
solution of 𝐹𝑒(𝑁𝐻 ) (𝑆𝑂 ) at 25°C is 10.8
(a) benzyl alcohol (b) acetone
atm. The expected and experimental
(c) formaldehyde (d) acetic acid
(observed) values of van't Hoff factor (i) will
66. The oxidation number of an element in a
be respectively:
compound is evaluated on the basis of certian
(R-0.082 Laun 𝑘′ 𝑚𝑜𝑙 )
rules. Which of the
(a) 5 and 4.42 (b) 4 and 4.00
following rules is not correct in this respect?
(c) 5 and 3.42 (d) 3 and 5.42
(a) The oxidation number of hydrogen is always +
59. For making good quality mirrors, plates of
1.
float glass are used. These are obtained by
(b) The algebraic sum of all the oxidation
floating molten glass over a liquid metal
numbers in a compound is zero.
which does not solidify before glass. The
(c) An element in the free or the uncombined
metal used can be
state bears oxidation number zero.
(a) tin (b) sodium
(d) In all its compounds, the oxidation nunberof
(c) magnesiuin (d) mercury
fluorineis-1
60. 𝑃𝑏𝐹 , 𝑃𝑏𝐶𝑙 exist but 𝑃𝑏𝐵𝑟 and 𝑃𝑏𝐼 do not
exist because of
67. For the reaction: 2𝑁𝑂 (𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑁𝑂(𝑔) + (c) 𝑆𝑖𝐹 , and He atoms (d) H₂O and alcohol
𝑂 (𝑔), 73. Which has most stablc+2 oxidation state:
(𝐾 = 1.8×10 at 184°C) (R=0.0831 kJ/(mol. K)) (a) Sn (b) Pb (c) Fc (d) Ag
When 𝐾 , and 𝑘 are compared at 184°C, it is 74. Match Column-I (IUPAC nomenclature of
found that element) with Column-II (IUPAC official
(a) Whether 𝐾 is greater than, less than or name).
equal to 𝑘 depends upon the total gas pressure Column-1 Column-II
(b) 𝐾 =𝑘 A. Unnilhexium I. Lawrencium
(c) 𝐾 is less than 𝑘 B. Unniltriun II. Dubnium
(d) 𝐾 is greaterthan 𝑘 C. Unnilunium III. Seaborg
68. A monobasic weak acid solution has a D. Unnilpention IV. Mendeleev
molarity of 0.005 and pH of 5. What is the (a) A–IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
percentage ionization in this solution? (b) A–III; B-I; C-IV; D-II
(a) 2.0 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.5 (d) (c) A–III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
0.25 (d) A–II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
69. The ∆H at 358 K for the reaction 75. If n=6, the correct sequence for filling of
𝐹𝑒 𝑂 (𝑠) + 3 𝐻 (𝑔) 2𝐹𝑒(𝑠) + 3 𝐻 𝑂 (1) electrons will be:
given that ∆𝐻 =-33.29 kJ𝑚𝑜𝑙 and 𝐶 , (a) 𝑛𝑠 → (𝑛 − 2)𝑓 → (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 → 𝑚𝑝
for𝐹𝑒 𝑂 (s), (b) 𝑛𝑠 → (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 → (𝑛 − 2) → 𝑛𝑝
Fo(s), H₂O (1)and 𝐻 (g) and 103.8, 25.1, 75.3 (c) 𝑛𝑠 → (𝑛 − 2) 𝑓 → 𝑛𝑝 → (𝑛 − 1)𝑑
and 28.8 J/K mol (d) 𝑛𝑠 → 𝑛𝑝 → (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 → (𝑛 − 2)𝑓
(a) -28.136 kJ𝑚𝑜𝑙 (b) -38.3 kJ𝑚𝑜𝑙 76. What is the expression of frequency (v)
(c) 42.5kJ𝑚𝑜𝑙 (d) 56.2 kJ 𝑚𝑜𝑙 associated with absorption spectra of the
70. The enthalpy of neutralisation of a weak acid photon.
in 1 M solution with a strong base is 56.1 kcal (a) 𝑉 = − 𝑛 >𝑛
𝑚𝑜𝑙 If the enthalpy of ionisation of acid is
1.5 kcal molt and enthalpy of neutralisation of (b) 𝑣 = − 𝑛 >𝑛
the strong acid with a strong base is -57.3 kJ
𝑒𝑞 . What is the % ionisation of the weak (c) 𝑣 = − − 𝑛𝑓 > 𝑛
acid in molar solution (assume the acid is
monobasic) (d)All the above are correct
(a) 25 (b) 200 77. How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be
(c) 15 (d) 10 formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO
71. The bond dissociation energy of B-F in BF3 is and 3.2 g of HCl?
is 646 kJ 𝑚𝑜𝑙 whereas that of C-F in CF is (a) 0.044 (b) 0.333
515 kJ 𝑚𝑜𝑙 The correct 4 reason for higher B (c) 0.011 (d) 0.029
- F bond dissociation energy as compared to 78. Equal weights of NaCl and KCl are dissolved
that of C-Fis separately in equal volumes of solutions.
(a) stronger 𝜎 bond between B and F in BF3 as Molarity of the two solutions will be:
compared to that between C and F in 𝐶𝐹 (a) equal
(b) significant p𝜋-p𝜋 interaction between B and (b) that of NaCl will be less than that of KCl
Fin 𝐵𝐹 whereas there is no possibility of such (c) that of NaCl will be more than that of KCl
interaction between C and F in 𝐶𝐹 solution
(c) lower degree of pit pit interaction between B (d) that of NaCl will be about half of that of KCl
and Fin BF3 than that between C and Fin CF4- solution
(d) sınaller size of B-atom as compared to that of 79. Which one of the following coordination
C-atom. compounds is used to inhibit the growth of
72. Dipole-induced dipole interactions are tumours?
present in which of the following pairs: (a) Trans-platin
(a) Cl₂andCC14 (b) HCl and He atoms
(b) EDTAcomplex of calciun (a) Pb is more electropositive than Ge
(c) [(𝑃ℎ 𝑃) , 𝑅ℎ𝐶𝑙] (b) ionization potential of lead is less than that of
(d) Cis-platin Ge
80. What would happen when a solution of (c) ionic radii of 𝑝𝑏 and 𝑝𝑏 are larger than
potassiin chromate is treated with an excess those of 𝐺𝑒 and 𝐺𝑒
of dilute nitric acid? (d) of more pronounced inert pair effect in lead
(a) Cr₂𝑂 and H₂O are formed than in Ge
(b) 𝐶𝑟𝑂 is reduced to +3 state of Cr 88. The structure and hybridization of
(c) 𝐶𝑟𝑂 is oxidized to +7 state of Cr 𝑆𝑖(𝐶𝐻 ) 𝑖𝑠
(d) 𝐶𝑟 and 𝐶𝑟 𝑂 are formed (a) Bent, sp (b) Trigonal,sp²
81. In the reaction of formation of sulphur (c) Octahedral,d2sp³ (d) Tetrahedral,sp³
trioxide by contact process 2𝑆𝑂 + 𝑂 ⇌ 89.
2𝑆𝑂 the rate of reaction was incasured as
[ ]
= 2.5 × 10 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝐿 𝑆 The rate of
reaction is dt terms of [SO₂] in 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝐿 𝑆 will (a) I mole of Ethane
be: (b) 3 mole of ethane
(a) 1.25 10 (b) -2.50×10 (c) 𝐸𝑡𝐶 = 𝐶𝐶𝐻 𝐶𝐻 𝑁𝐻𝐸𝐼
(c) -3.75×10 (d) -5.00×10 (d) 4 mole of ethane
82. A reactant (A) froms two products: 90. Among the following compounds (1-III), the
correct order of reactivity with an electrophile
is

If Ea₂=2 Ea₁, then k₁ and k₂ are related as:

(a) 𝑘₂ = 𝑘1 /𝑅𝑇 (b) 𝑘 = k₁ /𝑅𝑇
(c) 𝑘₁ = 𝐴𝑘 𝑒𝐸𝑎/𝑅𝑇 (d) 𝑘₁ = 2𝑘 𝑒 /𝑅𝑇 (a) P>11>1 (b) III<I<II
83. The resistance of 0.1 N solution of a salt is (c) I>II>III (d) I=II>III
found to be 2.5x 10 ohm. The equivalent BOTANY
conductance of the solution is (cell constant = 91. Given below are two statements: One is
1.15 cm¯¹) labelled as Assertion A and the other is
(a) 4.6 (b) 5.6 labelled as Reason R:
(c) 6.6 (d) 7.6 Assertion A: The first stage of gametophyte in the
84. The highest electrical conductivity of the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.
following aqucous solutions is of Reason R: Protonema develops indirectly from
(a) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid spores produced in capsule.
(b) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(c) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid options given below:
(d) 0.1 M aceticacid (1) A is not correct but R is correct.
85. The freezing point of equimolal aqueous (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
solution will be highest for explanation of A.
(a) 𝐶 𝐻 𝑁𝐻 𝐶𝑙 (b) 𝐶𝑎(𝑁𝑂 ), (3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(c) La(𝑁𝑂 ), (d) 𝐶 𝐻 𝑂 correct explanation of A.
86. If the solution boils at a temperature 𝑇 and (4) A is correct but R is not correct.
the solvent at a temperature 𝑇 the elevation 92. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are-
of boiling point is given by (1) Homosporous (2) Heterosporous
(a) T₁+𝑇 (b) T₁-𝑇 (3) megasporous (4) more than one
(c) 𝑇 − 𝑇 (d) T₁+𝑇 option it correct
87. Ge(II) compounds are powerful reducing 93. Type of placentation observed in china rose,
agents whereas Pb(IV) compounds are strong petunia and lemon
oxidants. It is because (1) Marginal (2) Armpits
(3) Parietal (4) Basal 101. Which reaction centre has an absorption
94. Given below are two statements: peak at 700 nm:
Statement I: Endarch and exarch are the terms (1) PSI, hence is Called P680
often used for describing the position of primary (2) PSII, hence is Called P700
xylem in the plant body. (3) PSI, hence is called P700
Statement II: Endarch condition is the most (4) PSII, hence is called P680
common feature of the root system. 102. Given below are two statements: One is
Choose the correct answer from the options labelled as Assertion A and the other is
given below: labelled as Reason R:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Assertion A: ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.
true. Reason R: First ATP is used in conversion of
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. fructose-
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 6-phosphate into fructose-1, 6 disphosphate and
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false. second is used in converting glucose into glucose-
95. Among these which pair of organisms belong 6-phosphate.
to the same genus? Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) Lion and cats (2) Potato and brinjal given below
(3) Mango and wheat (4) House fly and man (1) A is false but R is true.
96. Choose the most appropriate option with (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
respect to starch and cellulose explanation of A
(1) Both starch and cellulose are branched (3)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
polymer. explanation of A
(2) Both Starch and Cellulose are linear polymer. (4) A is true but R is false.
(3) Cellulose is branched polymer but starch is 103. Read the given statement carefully and
linear polymer. choose the correct option-
(4) Starch is branched polymer but cellulose is (1) ABA stimulates the closure of stroma and
linear polymer. decreases the tolerance of plants to various kinds
97. S phase or synthesis phase marks the period of stresses.
during which- (2)Ethephon actually promotes female flowers in
(1) DNA synthesis takes place cucumbers, thereby increasing the yield.
(2) Cell is metabolically active (3)GA₂ is used to speed up the malting process in
(3) There is no increase in the chromosome brewing industry.
number (4) Spraying juvenile conifers with GAs hasten the
(4) More than one option is correct maturity period, thus leading to early seed
98. Anaphase II stage of meiosis involves- production.
(1) Duplication of chromosome 104. What do you mean by the term
(2) Division of centromere. dedifferentiation?
(3) Chromatids attached to same pole (1) Cells undergo few to major structural changes
(4) Both 1 & 3 are correct both in their cell walls and protoplasm.
99. Pachytene is the stage- (2) Environmental signals such as light and gravity
(1) Characterised by the appearance of also affect certain phases of dedifferentiation.
recombination nodule (3) Cells, that by now have lost the capacity to
(2) Chromosomes start pairing togather divide can regain the capacity of division under
(3) Compaction of chromosome occurs certain contidition.
(4) Dissolution of synaptonemal Complex occurs (4) Plants follow different pathways in response
100. By the the use of 36 ATP and 24 NADPH, to environment or phases of life to form different
how many moles of glucose synthesized kinds of structures. This ability is called
during calvin cycle: dedifferentiation
(1) 1 mole (2) 2 mole 105. Which hormone Cause fruits like apple to
(3) 3 mole (4) 4 mole elongate and improve its shape
(1) 2,4-D (2) Gibberellins 114. Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can
(3) Kinetine (4) Ethylene be seen when
106. In insect pollinated plants, which type of (1) Stained with ethyl bromide and exposed to UV
flowers are seen rays.
(1) Large, Colourless, fragrant (2) Stained with ethidium bromide and exposed
(2) Small, Colourful, fragrant to normal ligt
(3) Large, Colourful, fragrant (3) Stained with ethyl bromide and exposed to x-
(4) Small, Colourful, fragrant rays.
107. Synergids, zygote and primary endosperm (4) Stained with ethidium bromide and exposed
nucleus to UV rays.
(The haploid diploid and triploid structure) of a 115. In gene gun method used to introduce
fertilized embryo sac are sequentially in- alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of
(1) Gymnosperm (2) Angiosperm gold or tungsten metal are used in...
(3) Fungi (4) All of these (1) Plants (2) Mycoplasma
108. The tessels in the corn cob represents- (3) Mammals (4) All of these
(1) Calyx and corolla both 116. Addition of chilled ethanol precipitates
(2) Stigma and style both out......., dusing the purification process for
(3) Only calyx recombinent technalogy
(4) Only stigma (1) Monosaccharide (2) mRNA
109. A single gene affecting multiple (3) DNA (4) Proteins
phenotypic expression, this phenomenon is 117. Identify the incorrect statements:
known as A. Detrivores perform fragmentation on live
(1) Concept of dominance (2) Co dominence material in ecosystem
(3) Multiple allelism (4) Pleiotropism B. The humus is dark nutrient rich substance
110. The term linkage to describe physical degraded by microorganism.
association of genes on a chromosome is C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into
coined by- the soil and get precipitated by a process called
(1) Hanging leaching.
(2) Thomas Hunt Morgan D. The detritus food chain begins with living
(3) Sutton and Boveri organisms.
(4) Alfred Sturtevant E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller
111. What is the role of RNA polymerase I in particles by a process called catabolism.
the process of transcription in Eukaryotes? Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) Transcription of only snRNAS given below:
(2) Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S) (1) D, E, A only (2) A, B, C only
(3) Transcription of tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNA (3) B, C, D only (4) C, D, E only
(4) Transcription of precursor of mRNA 118. In the equation GPP R = NPP, GPP is Gross
112. All the genes that are expressed as RNA Primary Productivity, R is respiratory loss NPP
are referred as here is
(1) Polymerised genes (1) Nutrient primary productivity
(2) Expressed sequence tags (EST) (2) Nutrient primary producer
(3) Mutated ganes (3) Net primary productivity
(4) All of these (4) Net primary producer
113. Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic 119. The historic Convention on Biological
material was first proposed by Diversity, was held in Rio de Janeiro in
(1) Alfred Hershey and Martha chase (1944) (1) The world Summit, 1992
(2) Fedrick Griffith (1931) (2) The world Summit, 1985
(3) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952) (3) The Earth Summit, 1991
(4) Fedrick Griffith (1922) (4) The Earth Summit, 1992
120. Identify Correct statements:
 A. "The Evil Quartet' is the four major causes (1) Uncompetitive inhibition
of biodiversity loses. (2) Competitive inhibition
B. Allen species invasion is one of the major (3) Non competitive inhibition
C. Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most (4) All of these
important cause of biodiversity loss. 125. Match List-l with List-II
(1) A & B only (2) A & C only
(3) B & C only (4) A, B, C all
121. Given below are two statements: One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: In gymnosperms the pollen grains
are released from the microsporangium and
carried by air currents. Choose the correct answer from the options
Reason R: The pollen tube carrying the male given below:
gametes grows towards orchegonia in the ovules (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
and discharge their contents near the mouth of (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (4) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
archegonia. 126. ATP Synthase has a channel that allows
Choose the correct answer from the options diffusion back across the membrane
given below: (1) poroton (2) H+
(1) A is false but R is true. (3) ATP (3) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 127. Math List-l with List-ll
explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.
(4) A is true but R is false.
122. Given below are two statements: One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labeled as Reason
R: Choose the correct answer from the options
Assertion A: A flower is defined as modified shoot given below:
wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
floral meristem. (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Reason R: Meristematic tissue Called Cork 128. Which of the following statements are
Cambium or phellogen develops, usually in the correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome?
Cortex region. A. This disorder was first described by Langdon
Choose the correct answer from the options Down (1866).
given below: B. Such an individual has overall masculine
(1) A is false but R is true. development. However, the feminine
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct development is also expressed.
explanation of A C. The affected individual has overall masculine
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct development.
explanation of A. D. Physical, psychomotor and mental
(4) A is true but R is false. development is retarded.
123. Identify the correctly matched pair. E. Such individuals are hyperactive and Causes
(1) Ectocarpus -Green algae Sexual Crime.
(2) Porphyra -Red algae Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) Laminaria -Red algae given below:
(4) Polysiphonia -Brown algae (1) A and E only (2) C and D only
124. Inhibition of Saccinic dehydrogenase by (3) A and B only (4) B and C only
malonate is example of-
129. The Cellular factory responsible for
Synthesis of porotein
(1) Mitochondria (2)SER (3)
Ribosome (4) Both (1) and (3)
130. All these steps are involved in formation
of recombinent DNA except:
A. Coating of DNA fragments using PCR.
Choose the correct answer from the options
B. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host
given below:
cell.
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
C. Cutting of DNA at specific location by
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
restriction enzyme.
135. Given below are two statements:
D. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
Statement I: Ligaments are dense regular
E. Modification of gene of interest using PCR.
connective tissue.
(1) A and B (2) A and C
Statement II: Cartilage is specialised dense
(3) A and D (4) A and E
regular Connective tissue.
131. Given below are two statements:
Choose the correct answer from the option given
Statement I: Gause's 'Competitive Exclusive
below:
Principle' states that two closely related species
(1) Statement I is false but Statement III is true.
Competing for the Same resources can co-exist
(2) Both Statement I and II are true
indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be
(3) Both Statement I and II are false
eliminated eventually.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Statement II: In general, herbivores are affected
ZOOLOGY
by competition than Carnivores more adversely.
136. Which of the following are considered as
Choose the correct answer from the options
the part of endomembrane system?
given below:
A. Mitochondria
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
true
C. Chloroplasts
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
D. Golgi complex
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
E. Peroxisomes
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
132. Match List-l with List-ll
options given below:
(1) A, D and E only (2) B and D only
(3) A, C and E only (4) A and D only
137. Which of the following functions is not
carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell?
A. Transportation
B. Nuclear division
C. Protein synthesis
D. Motility
Choose the correct answer from the give options: E. mechanical Suppasht
(1) A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II (2) A-VI,B-II,C-I,D-III Choose the most appropriate answer
(3) A-IV,B-I,C-II,D-III (4) A-IV,B-III,C-I,D-II (1) D and E only (2) A, B, C and E only
133. Adults of which phyllum shows radial (3) A, B and C only (4) B and C only
symmetry 138. Given below are two statements:
(1) Coelenterates (2) Stenophores Statement I: Low temperature preserves the
(3) Hemichordates (4) Both (1) and (2) enzyme in a temporarily active state whereas
134. Match List-l with List-II. high temperature destroys enzymatic activity
because proteins are denatured by heat.
Statement II: When the inhibitor closely Choose the correct answer from the options
resembles the substrate in its molecular structure given below:
and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is (1) A is false but R is true.
known as competitive inhibitor. (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Choose the correct answer from the options explanation of A.
given below: (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true. explanation of A.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (4) A is true but R is false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 143. Match List-l with List-II
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
139. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the
left end represented by first amino acid (N-
terminal) and the right end represented by last
amino acid (C-terminal) Statement II: Adult
human haemoglobin, consists of 4 subunits (two
subunits of a type and two subunits of ẞ type.)
Choose the correct answer from the options Choose the correct answer from the options giver
given below: below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4)A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 144. Match List-l with List-II
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
140. IRV + ERV + TV represents
(1) Total lung capacity
(2) Inspiratory capacity
(3) Expiratory capacity
(4) Vital capacity.
141. Match List-l with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
145. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from
seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the
semen duct.
Choose the correct answer from the option given Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called
below: cervical cap which along with vagina forms birth
(1) A-V, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II canal.
(3) A-IV, B-V, C-II, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-V, D-III Choose the correct answer from the options
142. Given below are statements: one is given below:
labelled as Assertion A and the other is (1) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.
labelled as Reason R. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
& Juxta medullary, based on their relative (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
position in cortex and medulla. 146. Given below are two statements: one is
Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have longer labelled as Assertion A and the other is
loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have labelled as Reason R.
short loop of Henle. Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for
implantation of blastocyst.
Reason R: In the presence of fertilization, the 150. Match List-l with List-II.
corpus luteum persists that causes persistance of
endometrium.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
given below:
explanation of A.
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A is true but R is false.
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
147. Which of the following statements are
151. Which one of the following symbols
correct regarding female reproductive cycle?
represents parents with male child affected
A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes
with disease?
during reproduction are called oestrus cycle.
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is
called menarche.
C. Lack of menstruation must be indicative of
pregnancy.
D. Cyclic menstruation begins at puberty and
extends throughout the life in females.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) A, C and D only (2) A and D only
(3) A and B only (4) A, B and C only 152. Broad palm with single palm crease is
148. Completely curable sexually transmitted visible in a person suffering from X, the
diseases are disorder X was first described by-
A. Gonorrhoea (1) Langdon Down (1866)
B. HIV (2) Langdon Down (1875)
C. Genital herpes (3) Thomas Docon (1961)
D. Hepatitis-B (4) Langdon Down (1857)
(1) A, B & C only (2) A, C & D only 153. Given below are two statements:
(3) A & C only (4) A only Statement I: RNA mutates at a lower rate.
149. Given below are two statements: one is Statement II: Viruses having DNA genome and
labelled as Assertion A and the other is shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
labelled as Reason R. Choose the correct answer from the options
Assertion A: Amniocentasis involves removal of given below:
some of the amniotic fluid that bathes the (1) Statement I false but Statement II is true.
developing fetus and analysing the fetal cells and (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
dissolved substances (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
increasing menace of female foeticide. 154. Match List-l with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.
(4) A is true but R is false.
Choose the correct answer from the options D. from infected mother to her child through
given below: sexual contact.
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-III (1) A and B only (2) B and C only
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (3) A, B and C only (4) A, B, C and D all
155. Given below are two statements: 160. Choose the incorrect Statement.
Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively (1) BAC is a cloning vector
charged DNA is held with some negatively (2) YAC is not a cloning vector
charged proteins in a region called nucleoid. (3) Probe is also not a cloning vector
Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively (4) None.
charged DNA is wrapped around the positively 161. In early stages of infections, amplification
charged histone octamer to form nucleolus. of pathogenic nucleic acid can be done by all,
Choose the correct answer from the options except-
given below: (1) PCR
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (2) ELISA
true. (3) Recombinent DNA technalogy
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (4) Serum and urine analysis
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 162. Match List-l with List-II.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
156. Spotted Cuscus exhibits.....
(1) Wide adaptation (2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Filaria like character (4) All of these
157. Match List-l with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below:
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
given below: 163. Hairs, pinna and mammary glands are
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I characteretically present in-
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (1) mammalians (2)Reptilians
158. Match List-l with List-II. (3) Amphibians (4) All of these
164. Select the incorrect statements with
reference to chordates:
A. Presence of a dorsal hollow nerve Cord.
B. Presence of open circulatory system.
C. Presence of paired pharyngeal gills
D. Presence of dorsal heart
E. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate animals.
Choose the correct answer from the options
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
given below: (1) C, D and E only (2) A, C and D only
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (3) B and C only (4) B, D and E only
(3) A-I. B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 165. Which of the following is characteristic
159. Transmission of HIV infection generally feature of cockroach regarding sexual
occurs by- dimorphism?
A. Sexual Contact with infected person. (1) Anal cerci (2) movement in night.
B. By transmission of Contaminated blood. (3) Anal styles (4) Sclerites
C. By Sharing infected needles 166. Match List-l with List-II.
 170. Which of the following statements are
correct?
A. Basophils are least aboundant cell of the total
WBCS
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and
heparin
C. Basophils are involved in allergic response
Choose the correct answer from the options D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III E. Basophils are agranulocytes
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III Choose the correct answer from the options
167. In cockroach, excretion is brought about given below:
by- (1) A and B only (2) D and E only
A. Uricose glands (3) C and E only (4) A, B and E only
B. Mammillary body 171. Which of the following statements are
C. Nephron correct?
D. Fat body A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body
E. Collatcrial glands switches off osmoreceptors.
Choose the correct answer from the options B. ADH cause an increase in blood pressure.
given below: C. ANF causes vasoconstriction
(1) A and D only D. ADH causes increase in semen volume.
(2) A and E only E. ADH is responsible for increase in GFR.
(3) A, B and E only Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) B, C and D only given below:
168. Given below are two statements: (1) C, D and E only (2) B and E only
Statement I: During G₁ phase of cell cycle (3) B, C and D only (4) A, B and E only
Initiation of DNA replication occurs. 172. Which of the following statements are
Statement II: The centrosome undergoes incorrect regarding skeletal muscle?
duplication during M phase of interphase. A. Muscle bundles are held together by
Choose the most appropriate answer from the collagenous connective tissue layer called fascia.
option below: B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is store house of calcium ions.
correct C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are proteins.
incorrect. D. M line is a thin fibrous membrane.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Choose the most appropriate answer from the
incorrect. options given below:
169. Select the incorrect statements (1) A and C only (2) A, B and C only
A. Tetrad formation is seen during leptotene (3) A only (4) A,C and D only
B. During Anaphase, the centromere split and 173. Sexual behaviour and pleasure is
chromatids separate. regulated by-
C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene. (1) Corpus callosum and thalamus
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed (2) Limbic system & hypothalamus
during Telophase. (3) Corpora quadrigemina & hippocampus
E. Crossing over takes place between non sister (4) Brain stem & epithelium
chromatids of homologous 174. Which of the following are under the
Choose the correct answer from the option given control of thyroid hormone?
below: A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
(1) B and E only (2) A and C only B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
(3) B and D only (4) A, C and E only C. Regulation of blood calcium level
D. Development of immune system (1) Depending on base composition (A:T rich or
E. Melatonin maintains sleep wake cycle. G:C rich), length of segment, and number of
Choose the correct answer from the options repetitive units, satellite DNA is classified in
given below: micro-satellites and mini-satellites etc.
(1) A, B, C and E only (2) A, B and E only (2) The technique of DNA fingerprinting was
(3) A, B and C only (4) B, C and D only. initially developed by Alec Jeffreys.
175. The strand which does not code for an (3) Polymorphisms are non-inheritable from
referred to as parents to children.
(1) Template strand (2) Non coding strand (4) DNA fingerprinting is the basis of paternity
(3) Coding strand (4) More than one option is testing, in case of disputes.
correct 180. Statement I: The neural system provides
176. Match List-l with List-II an organised network of point-to-point
connections for a quick coordination.
Statement II: The endocrine system provides
chemical integration through hormones.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
177. Statement I: The bundle sheath cells are
rich in an enzyme ribulose bisphosphate
carboxylase-oxygenase (RuBisCO), but lack
PEPcase in C4 plants.
Statement II: The Calvin pathway is common to
the C3 and C4 plants.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.
178. Identify the statement that is not true
regarding polygenic traits.
(1) Such traits are generally controlled by three or
more genes.
(2) In polygenic traits a single gene can exhibit
multiple phenotypic expressions.
(3) Besides the involvement of multiple genes it
also takes into account the influence of
environment.
(4) Human skin colour is classic example for this.
179. Identify the incorrect statement.