UT-3

NEET UNIT TEST - 3 (01-07-2024)

SR ELITE
SYLLABUS
Botany : Principles of inheritance & variation and Molecular basis of inheritance : From the beginning of
chapter to the genetic material is DNA , properties of genetic material ( up to 24-06-24)
Zoology : Chemical Coordination and Intergration, Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health and Principles
and Inheritance and Variation : From the beginning of chapter to XY – Linked Inheritance, Sex –
limited and Sex – Influenced Inheritance (up to 24-06-2024)
Physics : Track 1 : Moving charges and magnetism : From the beginning of chapter to Force between two
SR ELITE, AIIMS S60 & MPL
long straight parallel conductors carrying current (up to 24-06-24 in teaching schedule)
Track 2 : Ray optics : and Optical instruments : Complete chapter and Wave Optics : Theories of
light, Waves front concept and Huygon’s principles, Huygens explanation of reflection and
refraction of plane waves at plane surface .
Chemistry : Track 1: Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics : Complete chapter and Bio molecules : Cell energy
cycle and Carbohydrates (up to 24-06-24)
Track-2: Complex compound and Organic chemistry : Halo alkanes – Preparations and all
properties , Aryl halides : Preparation (from diazonium salt, catalytic halogenations etc.) physical
and chemical properties , Aromatic nucleophilic substirutions (ArSN) and benzyne mechanism (up
to 24-06-24 in teaching schedule )

Guidelines :
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 question only

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 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
BOTANY 7. Which of the following trait of pea plant is
SECTION - A expressed only in homozygous state?
(1) Inflated (2) Violet
1. Which of the following is not a hybrid?
(3) Wrinkled (4) Axial
(1) YyRrTt (2) Tt
8. Match List-I with List-II :
(3) YYRR (4) YyRr
List - I List - II
2. An example for co-dominance in ABO blood
Phosphate group
grouping system is
(1) ‘A’ Blood group
N-glycosidic and OH of 51
(a) (i)
bond carbon of pentose
(2) ‘O’ Blood group
(3) ‘B’ Blood group sugar
(4) ‘AB’ Blood group Phosphoester
(b) (ii) Cytosine
3. Types of Recombinant phenotypes expressed linkage
in F2 generation of Mendelian dihybrid cross Pyrimidine
are (c) common to both (iii) Uracil
(1) 2 (2) 4 DNA and RNA
(3) 6 (4) 9 Pyrimidine N 2 base and 1st
4. Experimental organism of T.H. Morgan is (d) present in only (iv) carbon of pentose
(1) Neurospora RNA sugar
(2) Vicia faba
(3) Drosophila melanogaster Select the correct option :
(4) Pisum sativum (a) (b) (c) (d)
5. Sickle cell anemia is due to (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) Frame shift mutation (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) Duplication (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) Point mutation (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) Inversion 9. When a cross is made between plants with
6. Match List-I with List-II : genotypes TtYy x Ttyy. What proportion of
List-I List-II offsprings are expected to exhibit the
Wilkins and following phenotypes ; tall / green and
(a) Nuclein (i) dwarf / green respectively
Franklin
Central Dogma 3 1 4 1
(1) , (2) ,
(b) of Molecular (ii) Watson & Crick 16 16 16 16
biology 3 1 2 2
(3) , (4) ,
(c) X-ray diffraction (iii) Francis Crick 8 8 8 16
10. The three steps in Hershey and Chase
(d) A+G/T+C = 1 (iv) Meischer
experiment in sequence respectively
(v) E.Chargaff (1) Centrifugation, Blending, Infection
(2) Blending, Centrifugation, Infection
Select the correct option : (3) Infection, Blending, Centrifugation
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) Blending, Infection, Centrifugation
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 11. Prior to the work of Avery, MacLeod and
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) McCarty the genetic material was thought to
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) be
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (v) (1) Carbohydrate (2) Lipid
(3) Nucleic acid (4) Protein
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 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
12. Given below are two statements. One is
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is Select the correct option :
labelled Reason (R). (a) (b) (c) (d)
Assertion (A) : Human skin colour is an (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
example for polygenic trait. (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Reason (R) : Human skin colour phenotypic (3) (v) (i) (iv) (iii)
expression is controlled by three genes. (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
In light of the above statements, choose the 16. Given below are two statements.
correct answer from the options given below. Statement I : Linkage occurs between two
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the non-allelic genes present on a chromosome
correct explanation of (A). close to each other.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not Statement II : Two alleles of a gene pair that
the correct explanation of (A). code for a character are located on
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. homologous sites on homologous
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false. chromosomes.
13. Study the following : In light of the above statements, choose the
A – Incomplete dominance
correct answer from the options given below.
B – Codominance
C – ‘ABO’ blood grouping (1) Both statement I and statement II are
D – Human skin colour
correct.
Inheritance of character is due to a single
gene in (2) Both statement I and statement II are
(1) A, B only (2) C, D only incorrect.
(3) B, C, D only (4) A, B, C only
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
14. Sahiwal is
(1) Indian breed of buffaloes incorrect.
(2) Indian breed of cows (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(3) Indian breed of bulls correct.
(4) Indian breed of goats 17. In a diploid organism the expression of a trait
15. Match List-I with List-II :
may be due to
List-I List-II
Transcriptionally I) A pair of alleles
(a) Euchromatin (i)
active II) A pair of identical alleles
(b) Heterochromatin (ii) Stains Dark III) A pair of unidentical alleles
Packaging of
Non-histone IV) A pair of alleles situated at different gene
(c) (iii) chromatin at
proteins loci on same chromosome
higher level
Histone protein (1) I, II, IV only
(d) that is not a part (iv) H1 (2) II, III, IV only
of histone octamer (3) I, III only
(v) Stains light (4) I, II, III only
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 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
18. Match List-I with List-II : (1) Adenine (2) Guanine
List-I List-II (3) Thymine (4) Cytosine
(a) Number of true 23. How many of the following statements are
breeding varieties (i) 1 correct?
I) The name ‘Nuclein’ for DNA was given
of pea plant
by Meischer.
(b) Number of II) Double helix model for the structure of
characters related (ii) 3 DNA was proposed by Watson and Crick.
to colour III) The two polynucleotide chains of DNA
(c) Number of are parallel to each other and non-
characters related (iii) 2 complimentary.
IV) The pitch of DNA helix is 0.34 nm.
to shape
V) Central dogma of molecular biology was
(d) Number of proposed by Watson & Crick.
vegetative (iv) 14 (1) 2 (2) 3
characters (3) 4 (4) 5
(v) 6 24. Choose the correct statement :
(1) DNA is a long polymer of ribonucleotides
Select the correct option :
(2) A dinucleotide is formed by two
(a) (b) (c) (d)
nucleotides through 3  5
1 1

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) phosphodiester linkage

(2) (iv) (ii) (v) (iii) (3) A nitrogen base linked to phosphate to
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) form nucleoside
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (4) Thymine is present in RNA at place of
uracil
19. Given below are two statements.
25. Universally accepted Mendel Law is
Statement I : In case of pleiotropic genes,
dominance is not an autonomous feature of a (1) Law of dominance
gene or the product that it has information (2) Law of segregation
for. (3) Law of independent assortment
Statement II : Both genes and chromosomes (4) 1 and 2
occurs in pairs in diploid cells. 26. Given below are two statements.
In light of the above statements, choose the Statement I : According to Avery, Macleod
correct answer from the options given below. MeCarty DNase did inhibit transformation
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
suggesting that DNA acts as genetic material.
correct.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are Statement II : DNA from heat killed ‘S’
incorrect. strain cell moved to ‘R’ strain that led to
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is transformation of ‘R’ strain.
incorrect. In light of the above statements, choose the
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct answer from the options given below.
correct. (1) Both statement I and statement II are
20. Which of the following allele in ABO blood
correct.
group does not produce any sugar
(2) Both statement I and statement II are
(1) ‘ I A ’ (2) ‘ I B ’ incorrect.
(3) ‘i’ (4) ‘ I A , I B ’ (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
21. RNA does not differ from DNA in incorrect.
(1) Type of sugar (2) Type of pyrimidine (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(3) Type of purines (4) 1 and 2 correct.
22. 5-methyl uracil is
4
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
27. Identify the incorrect statement considering (1) Both statement I and statement II are
Morgan’s experiment on Drosophila. correct.
(1) He carried out several dihybrid crosses in (2) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect.
Drosophila to study genes that were sex-
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
linked. incorrect.
(2) He coined the term linkage to describe (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
the physical association of genes on a correct.
chromosome. 32. In Hershy & Chase experiment, radioactivity
(3) He coined the term recombination to detected in supernatant is due to
describe the generation of non-parental gene (1) P 32 present in viral coat
combinations.
(4) He observed that genes for body colour (2) S 35 present in viral coat
and eye colour segregated independently of (3) P 32 present in viral genome
each other showing F2 ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. (4) S 32 present in viral coat
N 2 bases of 33. Histones are rich in basic amino acid residues
28. Hydrogen bonds between
(1) Arginine, Methionine
opposite strands are seen in genetic material (2) Lysine, Glycine
of (3) Arginine, Lysine
I) TMV II) Bacteriophage  x 174 (4) Glycine, Alanine
III) E.coli IV) Bacteriophage  34. Study the following diagram and identify
(1) I, III only (2) II, III, IV only A and B respectively
(3) III, IV only (4) I, III, IV only
29. If the blood group of father and mother are

AB‘ type and B‘ type respectively.

Then the progeny will not have
(1) A’ blood group
(2) O’ blood group A B
(3) AB’ blood group (1) Anaphase-I Anaphase-II
(4) B’ blood group
(2) Anaphase-II Anaphase-I
30. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the
genetic material came from the experiments (3) Anaphase-I S-phase
of (4) S-phase Anaphase-I
(1) Frederick Griffith 35. Study the following data :
(2) Hershey & Chase Cross over value
Linked gene pair
(3) Meselson & Stahl (COV)
(4) Avery, Macleod, Mc carty P and Q 25
31. Given below are two statements. P and R 5
Statement I : Following rule of base pairing R and Q 30
and complementarity both DNA and RNA Q and S 10
have ability to direct their duplications. R and S 20
Statement II : Only DNA can function as COV are given for linked gene pair. Find
genetic material but not RNA. out their sequence in the chromosomes
In light of the above statements, choose the (1) R P S Q (2) S P R Q
correct answer from the options given below. (3) P R Q S (4) Q R P S
5
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
SECTION-B 40. Given below are two statements. One is
36. One of the following Genotype is not formed labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
in Dihybrid test cross labelled Reason (R).
(1) yyRr (2) Yyrr Assertion (A) : RNA mutates faster than
(3) yyrr (4) YYRr DNA.
37. Match the following according to double Reason (R) : Every nucleotide of RNA has a
helical model of DNA given by Watson and 2 ' OH group that makes it highly reactive
Crick. and labile.
List-I List-II In light of the above statements, choose the
Pitch of DNA correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (i) 10 bp
helix (1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Base pairs per (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(b) (ii) 3.4 nm
each turn the correct explanation of (A).
Distance (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) between base (iii) 0.34 nm (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
pairs correct explanation of (A).
Two successive 41. Match List-I with List-II considering
nucleotides in a Phosphodiester Mendel’s dihybrid cross F2 generation :
(d) (iv)
DNA strand are bond List-I List-II
linked by Genotypes that
(v) Hydrogen bonds code for
(a) (i) YyRr
recombinant
Select the correct option : phenotypes
(a) (b) (c) (d) Double
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) homozygous
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) recombinant
(b) (ii) YYRR, yyrr
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) genotypes
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
38. Consider the cross AaBb AaBb. If trait ' A '
exhibits complete dominance and trait ' B ' Double
exhibits co-dominance what phenotypic ratio homozygous
(c) (iii) YYrr, yyRR
is expected in the progeny ? parental
(1) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1 genotypes
YYrr
(2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 Double
Yyrr
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) heterozygous (iv)
yyRR
(4) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 genotype
yyRr
39. Punnett square, a graphical representation
explains all the following except
Select the correct option :
(1) All possible genotypes of offsprings
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) All possible phenotypes of offsprings
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) Types of gametic fusions
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) The distance between genes
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
6
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
42. Match the following based on Mendelian 45. Given below are two statements.
dihybrid cross. Statement I : In E.coli as they do not have a
List-I List-II defined nucleus, the DNA is scattered
throughout the cell.
Yellow body / Statement II : In eukaryotes, the nucleosomes
(a) (i)
Red eyed male in chromatin are seen as ‘beads-on-string’
structure when viewed under electron
Brown body / microscope.
(b) (ii) White eye In light of the above statements, choose the
female correct answer from the options given below.
Red eyed / (1) Both statement I and statement II are
Miniature correct.
(c) (iii)
wing male (2) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect.
Red eyed / (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(d) (iv) Normal wing
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
female correct.
Brown body / 46. Study the following diagram and choose the
(v) White eyed correct option : X, Y and Z respectively are
male

Select the correct option :

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
X Y Z
43. ‘ABO’ blood grouping is controlled by _A_
Phosphodi Free OH Free phosphate
gene, coded by ____ alleles. ‘B’ and ‘A’ (1)
ester bond group group
respectively are
Free OH Phosphodi Free phosphate
(1) 3, 1 (2) 2, 3 (2)
group ester bond group
(3) 1, 3 (4) 1, 2
Free
44. Study the following diagram and choose the Free OH Phosphodiester
(3) phosphate
correct option : group bond
group
Free
Phosphodiester
(4) Free OH phosphate
bond
group
A B 47. Find the mis-match :
(1) Translation Transcription (1) Hershey and Chase experiment - P 32 , S 35
(2) Replication Translation (2) Transforming principle – Streptococcus
(3) Transcription Translation pneumoniae
(4) Translation Replication (3) TMV – ssRNA is the genetic material
(4) ‘R’ strain – Produces smooth shiny
colonies on culture plate
7
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
48. Griffith’s experiment proved that (2) Increases bone C 2  levels
(1) DNA acts as genetic material
(3) Increases blood C 2  levels
(2) RNA is the transforming factor
(4) Increases blood glucose levels
(3) There are two strains in Streptococcus
52. The sex of the offspring depends on the type
pneumoniae
of ovum that is fertilized in these animals
(4) Some transforming principle transformed
(1) Reptiles and birds
R-strain bacteria into S-strain bacteria
(2) Butterflies and grass hoppers
49. Match List-I with List-II :
(3) Cockroaches and beetels
List-I List-II (4) Bugs and Drosophila
Number of base
53. Assertion (A) : Saheli is a new oral
pairs of DNA
(a) (i) 3.3 x 107 contraceptive pill for the females and it
associated with a
contains a steroidal preparation.
nucleosome
Types of histone Reason (R) : Saheli is a ‘once a month’ pill
proteins seen in with very few side effects and high
(b) (ii) Four contraceptive value.
core of a
nucleosome In light of the above statements, choose the
Number of correct answer from the options given below.
(c) nucleosomes in a (iii) 200 bp (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
diploid human cell correct explanation of (A).
Number of (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(d) nucleosomes in (iv) Zero the correct explanation of (A).
nucleoid of E.coli. (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(v) One (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
54. Read the following statements about
Select the correct option : mammary glands of female human being
(a) (b) (c) (d) I) They undergo differentiation during
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) pregnancy.
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (v) II) They secrete milk after child birth
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) III) The milk produced during the entire
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) period of lactation is called colostrum.
Pickout the correct option :
50. Reason for structural and chemical stability
(1) Only I and III are correct
of DNA are
(2) Only II and III are correct
I) Ribose sugar
(3) All I, II and III are correct
II) Double stranded
(4) Only I and II are correct
III) Deoxy ribose sugar
55. Which of the following is a probable reason
IV) Single stranded
for the growth of Indian population?
V) Having thymine in place of uracil
(1) Increased maternal mortality rate
(1) II, III, V only (2) II, III, IV only
(2) Poor quality of life of the people
(3) I, II, III only (4) III, IV, V only
(3) Increase in number of reproducible
ZOOLOGY
age people
SECTION – A
(4) Decreased medical facilities for all sex-
51. Hormone secreted by parathyroid glands
related problems
(1) Decreases blood C 2  levels
8
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
56. Read the following statements about the sex Statement-I : Henking in 1891 could trace a
determination in honey bee. specific nuclear structure all through
A) Drones produce sperms by mitosis spermatogenesis in a few insects.
B) Drones do not have father but have Statement-II : Henking gave a name to this
a grand father structure as the X body but he could not
C) Workers have a father and a grand explain its significance.
father In light of the above statements, choose the
D) Males do not have grandsons but correct answer from the options given below.
have sons (1) Both statement I and statement II are
In these which statements are true? correct.
(1) A, B, C and D are true (2) Both statement I and statement II are
(2) Only A, B and C are true incorrect.
(3) Only A and B are true (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(4) Only C and D are true incorrect.
57. Identify the correct combination from the (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
following : correct.
Hormone Defect Result 61. Inhibin hormone is secreted by
Acromeg (1) Sertoli cells of ovaries
(1) GH Hyposecretion
aly
(2) Granulosa cells of testes
(2) Grave’s
Hypersecretion (3) Cells of Rauber in embryo
Thyroxine disease
(4) Sertoli cells of testes and ovarian follicles
Addison’
(3) Hypersecretion 62. Parturition is induced by a complex
s disease
Corticoids neuroendocrine mechanism involving
Diabetes (1) Cortisol, estrogens and oxytocin
(4) Insulin Hyposecretion
incipidus (2) Oxytocin, relaxin and aldosterone
(3) Relaxin, hCG and GnRH
58. These hormones are produced in women only (4) Progestogen, hPL and hCG
during pregnancy 63. Pick the odd one out with reference to
(1) Relaxin, hCG and hPL contraceptives
(2) Estrogens, progestogens and hCG (1) Diaphragms (2) Vaults
(3) Relaxin, FSH and LH (3) Condoms (4) Cervical caps
(4) Progestogens, hPL and PRL 64. The sex of the offspring depends on the type
59. GIFT is an assisted reproductive technology of sperm that fertilizes the ovum in these
method. This can be attempted when the animals
following feature is present in a female (1) Fumea, reptiles and birds
(1) If she can provide suitable environment (2) Grass hoppers, humans and Drosophila
for fertilization and further development (3) Beetels, birds and humans
(2) If she can produce one ovum (4) Reptiles, Drosophila and birds
(3) If she cannot receive sperms through 65. Immune responses in old persons are weak
coitus due to
(4) If she can provide suitable environment (1) Degeneration of thymus gland
for fertilization but not further development (2) Slow activities of B-lymphocytes
60. Read the following statements : (3) Low Ca  levels in body fluids
(4) Slow activity of thyroid gland
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 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
66. Read the following statements about the (4) A has two similar sex chromosomes,
pregnancy of humans. B is heterogametic
I) Most of the major organ systems are 69. Hormones which interact with membrane –
formed by the end of first trimester. bound receptors generate
II) The end of second trimester is the (1) Cyclic AMP, IP3 and Ca 
beginning of the foetal heart sound.
(2) Cyclic ATP, IP3 and Ca 
III) The first movements of the foetus usually
observed in the middle of second trimester. (3) Cyclic AMP, IP4 and Ca 
IV) The placenta is formed around the
developing foetus in the beginning of third (4) Cyclic ATP, IP3 and Mg 
trimester.
70. Statement-I : During embryonic development
In the above the correct statements are
(1) II & III only of humans, the inner cell mass differentiates
(2) I & III only into ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm and
(3) II, III & IV only these layers give rise to all tissues (organs) in
(4) I, II & IV only
67. Statement-I : Vasectomised male humans do adults.
not release semen during coitus. Statement-II : The inner cell mass contains
Statement-II : In vasectomy, a small part of
certain cells called stem cells, which have the
the vas deference is removed or tied up
through a small incision on the scrotum. potency to give rise to all the tissues and
(1) Both I & II Statements are correct organs.
(2) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
wrong
(3) Statement-I is wrong, but Statement-II is wrong
correct (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) Both I & II Statements are wrong true
68. Observe the figure given below and select the (3) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
right option for A and B with reference to wrong
their determination of sex (4) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is
correct
71. Administration of A or B combinations or
C within 72 hours of coitus have been found
to be very effective as emergency
contraceptives.
(1) A – estrogens, B – estrogen – estradiol,
C - implants
(2) A – progestogens, B – progestogen –
estrogen, C - IUDs
(1) A is homogametic, B has two similar (3) A – implants, B – condom – IUDs,
sex chromosomes C - vaults
(2) B is heterogametic, A has two (4) A – diaphragms, B – vasectomy –
dissimilar sex chromosomes tubectomy, C – MTP
(3) A has two dissimilar sex
chromosomes, B is homogametic
10
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
72. Read the following statements about Statement-II : Androgens produce anabolic
sex-determination in humans and pick out the effects on protein and carbohydrate
correct statements. metabolism.
A) Out of 23 pairs of chromosomes present, In light of the above statements, choose the
22 pairs are exactly same in both males and correct answer from the options given below.
females. (1) Both statement I and statement II are
correct.
B) Males produce only one type of sperms with
(2) Both statement I and statement II are
an x-chromosome. incorrect.
C) In each pregnancy there is always 50 per cent (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
probability of either a male or a female child. incorrect.
D) Blaming women for giving birth to female (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
children always is a correct notation in our correct.
society. 78. Areola is
(1) Intercellular space in testis
(1) B and D (2) A and D
(2) Ring of pigmented skin around nipple
(3) A and C (4) C and D
(3) Interstitial fluid filled space in ovary
73. Which of the following is steroid hormone?
(4) Glandular modification on mons pubis
(1) Insulin (2) Epinephrine
79. Assertion (A) : Females infected with
(3) Thyroxine (4) Cortisol
venereal diseases may remain
74. After three to four months of pregnancy, the
undetected for long.
corpus luteum is no longer needed because of
this reason Reason (R) : In reproductive tract infections,
(1) Progesterone is not needed for the the infected females may often be
maintenance of pregnancy asymptomatic.
(2) hCG produced by the placenta is similar (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
in its actions to progesterone explanation of A.
(3) The placenta begins to secrete (2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
progesterone correct explanation of A.
(4) The prolactin begins to maintain the (3) A is true, R is false.
pregnancy (4) Both A and R are false.
75. Infertility case due to very low sperm counts 80. Assertion (A) : Two different types of
in the ejaculates could be corrected by gametes in terms of sex-chromosomes, are
(1) Zygote intra fallopian transfer produced by female bird.
(2) Embryo transfer
Reason (R) : Female birds have one ‘z’ and
(3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
one ‘w’ chromosome besides the
(4) Artificial insemination
autosomes.
76. ZW-ZZ type of sex-determination can be
found in In light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Drosophila (2) Grasshoppers correct answer from the options given
(3) Birds (4) Butterflies below.
77. Read the following statements : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Statement-I : Testis performs dual functions correct explanation of (A).
as a primary sex organ as well as an (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
endocrine gland. the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
11
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
81. Somatostatin inhibits the release of (3) Both Statement A and Statement B are
(1) Somatocrinin from the pituitary true
(2) Somatotropin from the pituitary (4) Statement A is false, Statement B is true
(3) Pancreatic polypeptide from the pancreas 87. Match the following List-I with List-II :
(4) Insulin like growth factors from the liver
82. Epididymis is located along List-I List-II
(1) Superior to prostate gland Incontinentia
(A) Y-linked gene (i)
(2) Anterior surface of testis pigmenti
(3) Ventral surface of rete testis X-linked
(4) Posterior surface of testis (B) recessive (ii) SRY genes
disorder
83. During oogenesis queen bee undergoes
Gene for bristle
(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis XY-linked
(C) (iii) condition in
(3) Amitosis (4) Parthenogenesis gene
Drosophila
84. Colostrum secreted by the mother during X-linked
initial days of lactation contains these (D) dominant (iv) Haemophilia
antibodies abundently disorder
(1) Ig G (2) Ig E
(3) Ig M (4) Ig A Select the correct option :
85. Assertion (A) : Drones do not have father (A) (B) (C) (D)
and thus cannot have sons. (1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Reason (R) : Drones have a grandfather
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
and can have grandsons.
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
In light of the above statements, choose the
88. Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a complex
correct answer from the options given below.
disorder, which is associated with
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(1) Rapid movement of glucose to
correct explanation of (A).
hepatocytes
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(2) Loss of glucose through urine
the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Rapid breakdown of glycerol to ketone
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
bodies
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Low secretion of glucagon by beta cells
SECTION-B 89. Which of the following induces the
86. Statement (A) : Periodic abstinence is a completion of the meiotic division of the
natural method in which the couples avoid or secondary oocyte?
abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the (1) Contact of the sperm with hyaluronidase
menstrual cycle. of discus proligerous (Cumulus oophorus)
Statement (B) : In female humans ovulation (2) Changes in the plasma membrane layer of
could be expected from 10th day to 17th day the ovum
of the menstrual cycle. (3) Entry of sperm into the perivitalline space
(1) Both Statement A and Statement B are of the ovum
(4) Entry of sperm into the cytoplasm of
false
the ovum
(2) Statement A is true, Statement B is false
12
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
90. Study the following given statements about Statement-II : A tertiary follicle is
tubectomy. characterized by a fluid filled cavity antrum.
I) The reversibility of this sterilisation
In light of the above statements, choose the
method is very poor.
II) This surgical intervention blocks gamete correct answer from the options given below.
transport and there by prevent conception. (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
III) In this a small part of the fallopian tube is
incorrect.
removed or tied up.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are
IV) By making a small incison in the
incorrect.
abdomen or through vagina the fallopian tube
(3) Both statement I and statement II are
is removed or tied up in this method.
correct.
The correct option is
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(1) All are true
correct.
(2) Only I, II & III are true
94. All require in vitro fertilization except
(3) All are false
(1) Test tube baby programme
(4) Only II & IV are false
(2) ICSI
91. Match the following List-I with List-II :
(3) GIFT
List-I List-II
(4) ZIFT
Pattern Sex-limited
A) i) 95. When the ovum is fertilized by the ‘sperm
baldness inheritance
without sex-chromosome’ can form a
Beard in Genic balance
B) ii) reproductively health individual in
man theory
(1) Butterfly
Murray Sex-influenced
C) iii) (2) Grasshopper
L.Barr trait
(3) Fowl
Calvin (4) Humanbeing
D) iv) Barr Bodies
Bridges 96. Which disorder of the following is common
in hilly areas due to leaching away of iodine
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (1) Exopthalmic goitre
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (2) Gull’s disease
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (3) Conn’s syndrome
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) Simple goitre
92. Which hormone of the following is not
secreted by the gastrointestinal tract? 97. When does the mitotic division (cleavage)
(1) Gastric inhibitory peptide starts in the zygote?
(2) Cholecystokinin
(1) When it moves through the ampulla of
(3) Secretin
the oviduct
(4) Glucagon
(2) When it reaches the lumen of the uterus
93. Read the following statements :
(3) When it moves through the isthmus
Statement-I : A primary spermatocyte
of the oviduct
completes the first meiotic division leading
(4) When it attaches to the wall of uterus
to formation of two equal, haploid secondary
spermatocytes.

13
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
98. Match List-I with List-II with respect to the Diabetes
b) Thyrocalcitonin ii)
methods of contraception and their respective insipidus
actions : Amino-acid
c) Thymosin iii)
List-I List-II derivative
They alter the d) Vasopressin iv) Hypocalcemia
quality of
a) Vaults i) cervical mucus (1) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
to retard entry of (2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
sperms (3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
Ejaculated (4) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
semen would not PHYSICS
Oral
enter into the SECTION – A
b) contraceptive ii)
female 101. A rigid wire consists of a semicircular
pills
reproductive portion of radius R and two straight
tract sections. The wire is partially present in a
They cover the perpendicular magnetic field B  Bo  k as  
cervix blocking shown in figure. If current in the wire is ‘i’
c) Sterilisation iii)
the entry of then the magnetic force on the wire is
sperms Y
Surgical
intervention
d) Nirodh iv)
blocks gamete
transport X

(1) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii) (1) -2iBR j (2)2iBR j
(2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv) (3) -iBR j (4)iBR j
(3) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv) 102. The line integral of the magnetic induction
(4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii) field around any closed path is equal to

 B.dl  0 Ienclosed
99. Assertion (A) : In grasshopper eggs (1)
fertilised by sperm having an X-
chromosome become female. (2)  B.dl  0
Reason (R) : In grasshopper the karyotype
(3)  B.dl  0  I enclosed 
2
of female is XX where as of male XO.
In light of the above statements, choose the 
correct answer from the options given below.
(4)  B.dl   Ienclosed
0

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 103. Two long, parallel straight wires carry equal
correct explanation of (A). currents in opposite directions . The
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not separation between the wires is 5.0 cm. If a
the correct explanation of (A). particle of charge 5C moves with a
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. velocity 500 ms-1 into the plane of the
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false. conductors , at a point P midway between the
wires , then the force on the particle will be
100. Match List-I with List-II :
(1) 4 105 N (2) 4  107 N
List-I List-II
(3) zero (4) 4  106 N
a) Epinephrine i) Peptide hormone
14
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
104. A uniform wire bent in the form of square of B and same everywhere on the
side ‘a’ connected to a source, so that current circumference of the loop, the magnetic
‘I’ flows in to the loop, as shown. The force acting on the loop is
magnetic induction at the center of the
square, due to square frame will be

(2) 2 IRB ; outward

I
I (1) 0
(3)  IRB ; outward (4) 2 IRB ; inward
0 8 2 I 0 2 2 I 109. In a cyclotron, a charged particle
(1) (2)
4 a 4 a (1) Undergoes acceleration all the time
 0 8 2I (2) Speeds up between the dees because of the
(3) zero (4)
a magnetic field
105. Two wires of length and carrie equal (3) Speeds up in a dee
1 2
(4) Slows down with in a dee and speeds up
currents. Two circular loops are made by
between dees
these wires. If the ratio of their magnetic
110. 1 Bohr magneton is
moment is
9 : 4 respectively then length ratio of wires is eh 4me
(1) (2)
: me eh
(1) 9 : 4 (2)4 : 9 eh eh
(3) (4)
4me 2me
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 3:2
106. A particle of charge 2µC passes with 111. A circular coil of radius R and N turns
carrying current I is in y-z plane, If it carries
constant velocity in a region where uniform
current in anticlock wise sense when viewed
magnetic field of induction 5mT acting from top, the magnitude of the magnetic
perpendicular velocity as well as a uniform field at a point on its axis at a distance x from
electric field of strength 1kVm-1. The speed its centre is given by
of the particle is  0 IR 2 N 
1
(1)   kˆ
(2) 2 10 ms  4( x  R )
6 2 2 3/ 2
(1) zero 
(3) 2 105 ms 1 (4) 4 10 ms
6 1  0 IR 2 N 
(2)   jˆ
 2( x  R )
2 2 3/ 2
107. A charged particle is released from rest in 
a region of steady and uniform electric and  0 IR 2 N 
(3)   iˆ
 2( x  R )
2 2 3/ 2
magnetic fields which are parallel to each 
other. The particle will move in a  0 IR 2 N 
(4)   iˆ
(1) Straight line (2) Circle  2( x  R )
2 2 3/ 2

(3) Helix (4) Cycloid 112. The graph between cyclotron frequency and
108 A circular loop of wire of radius R which the specific charge of the particles with a
carries current I is placed in a hypothetical fixed magnetic field will be
radial magnetic field, as shown in the
(1) Parabola (2) Circle
following figure. The centre of the loop
(3) Rectangular hyperbola
coincides with the centre of the magnetic
(4) Straight line
field. The induction of the magnetic field is
15
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
5
113. A proton moving in a perpendicular magnetic ( 3) 2.4 104 ( 4) 2.4 10
filed of induction B posses kinetic energy E.
If the magnetic field increased to 4B and the 118. Figure, shows graph of angle of deviation
particle is constrained to move in the circular  versus angle of incidence I, for a light
path of same radius, then its kinetic energy ray incident on a prism. The refracting
has to be angle of prism is.
(1)4 E (2) 16 E
(3)2E (4) E
114. Two circular coils made of same uniform
wire having turn ratio 3 : 4 and radii ratio 2 :
3 are connected in parallel across a battery.
The ratio between magnetic field inductions
at the centres is
(1) 9:4 (2)3:4
( 3) 9:16 (4) 4:9
115. Figure shows an equilateral triangle ABC of
side ‘ l ’ carrying currents as shown, and
placed in uniform magnetic field B (1) 300 (2) 450
perpendicular to the plane of triangle. The .
(3) 600 (4) 750
magnitude of magnetic force on triangle is
119. A mango tree is at the bank of a river and
I one of the branch of tree extends over the
B river. A tortoise lives in the river. A mango
falls just above the tortoise. The
I
acceleration of the mango falling from tree
as it appears to the tortoise is (refractive
A C index of water is 4/3 and the tortoise is
I stationary)
(1) g (2) 3g/4
(3) 4g/3 (4) g/4
(1) IlB (2) 2IlB 120. The magnification of an object placed in
(3) 3IlB (4) zero front of a convex lens is +2. The focal length
116. A toriod has a core (non-ferromagnetic) of of the lens is 2 m. The distance by which the
object has to be moved to obtain a
inner radius 25cm and outer radius 26cm,
magnification of -2 is
around which 3500 turns of a wire are (1) 1 m (2) 2m
wound. If the current in the wire is 5.5A, the (3) 3 m (4) 4 m
magnetic field in the empty space 121. Statement A: Lens maker's formula is
surrounded by the toroid is applicable to thin lenses and paraxial rays
Statement B: Thick lenses show chromatic
(1) 1.5x10-2T (2) 3x10-2 T
aberration due to dispersion of light
(3) zero (4) 6 x10-2 T Statement C: If lower half of a concave
117. Two thin long parallel wires carry 2 A and I mirror is covered with a non-reflecting
are separated by 5 cm in air, so that null suface, the image by it will be half that of the
whole object.
points are observed at 3 cm from conductor
(1) The statements A and B are correct but C
carrying I, in between the conductor in the is wrong
plane of the conductors. If current I is (2) Statement A is correct but B and C are
reversed in direction, then force per unit wrong
length of the conductors in Nm-1 will be (3) All the statements are wrong
3
(4) Statement A is wrong but B and C are
( 2) 2.4 10
6
( 1) 2.4  10 correct
16
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
122. A mirror of focal length 30 cm is in air. If is refractive index of water is 4/3. The area of
kept in a liquid of refractive index 3/2 then the surface of water through which light from
focal length of mirror in that liquid is the bulb can emerge out is nearly
(1) 30 cm (2) 20 cm (1) 3m2 (2) 28.25 m2
(3) 6m2 (4)25.28 m2
(3) 10 cm (4) 45 cm
123. A glass tumbler having inner depth of 127. Light takes 8 minutes 20 sec to reach from
17.5 cm is kept on a table. A student starts sun to the earth. If the whole universe and
atmosphere is hypothetically filled up with a
 4
pouring water     into it while looking liquid of refractive index 1.5, then the time
 3
taken by the light will be
at the surface of water from the above. When
(1) 8 minutes
he feels that the tumbler is half filled, he
(2) 10 minutes
stops pouring water. Up to what height, the
(3)12 minutes 30 sec
tumbler is actually filled?
(4)20 minutes
(1) 11.7 cm (2) 7.5 cm
(3) 10 cm (4) 8.75 cm 128. A thin prism P1 with an angle 6 and made of
124. A microscope is focused on a coin lying at the glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined
bottom of a beaker. The microscope is now with another prism P2 made from glass of
raised up by 1 cm. To what depth should the refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion
water be poured into the beaker so that coin is without deviation for mean colour . The angle
again in focus? (Refractive index of water is
of prism P2 is
4
) (1) 60 (2) 1.30
3
(4) 7.80 (4) 4.50
4
(1) 1 cm (2) cm 129. A person with a normal near point ( 25 cm)
3
using a compound microscope with lenses of
(3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm
focal lengths 8 mm and 2.5 cm. If object is at
125. Match the following
9 mm from objective , the magnifying power
List – I (Phenomenon) List – II (Reason)
of microscope in near point adjustment will
a) appearance of Sun K) refraction,
be
before actual sunrise reflection and
(1) 88 (2)44
reflection
b) Rainbow L) Total internal (3) 99 (4) 55
reflection 130. Assertion (A): For a simple microscope
c) Blue colour of sky M) scattering of light angular size of image equals the angular size
by atmospheric of object
molecules Reason (R) : A simple microscope can keep a
d) Shining of N) Refraction of sun small object much closer to the eye than 25
diamond light by atmosphere cm and hence it subtends a large angle.
(1) a-K, b-M, c-N, d-L (1) Both A and R are correct R is the correct
(2) a-N, b-M; c-K, d-L explanation of A
(3) a-N, b-K, c-M; d-L (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
(4) a-N; b-M, c-K; d-L correct explanation of A
126. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank (3) A is not correct but R is correct
containing water to a depth of 7 m . The (4) Both A and R are incorrect
17
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
131. In normal adjustment of a telescope the in the region of space then which of the
distance between two lenses is 150 cm and following is not possible ?
magnifying power is 24. The focal length of (1) E  0, B  0 (2) E  0, B  0
eye piece is (3) E  0, B  0 (4) E  0, B  0
(1) 144 cm (2) 6cm 137. The resultant force on the loop PQRS
(3) 126 cm (4) 6.25 cm carrying 10A due to a long conductor
132. A ray of light travels from an opticallly carrying current 20 A will be
denser to a rarer medium. The critical angle
for the two media is C. The maximum
possible deviation of the ray will be
S R
(1) C (2) 2C
2
20A 10 cm
(3) 2C (4) C
10 A
133. Which of the following is preferred as rear P Q
view mirror in automobile vehicles ? 2cm 8 cm
(1) plane mirror (2) convex mirror
(3) concave mirror (4) paraboloidal mirror 6
(1) Zero (2) 1.6  10 N
134. Statement-A : Huygen’s principle tells that 5 4
(3) 1.6 10 N (4) 1.6  10 N
each point on a wavefront is source of
138. A current – carrying wire of certain length
secondary waves, which add up to give
is bent to form an arc that subtends an angle
wavefront at a later time.
θ at the centre. Let B be the magnetic field
Statement-B : Thick lenses give coloured
at the centre due to this wire. The correct
images of object giving white light due to
graph between B and θ is
dispersion light.
(1) Statement A false but B is true B
(2) Statement A true but B is false
(3) Both the statements are false
(4) Both the statements are true 
(1)
135. Phase difference
between two points B

separated by a distance of on a spherical
2
wavefront produced by a source of 
(2)
monochromtic light of wavelength ‘  ’ is
 B
(1) rad (2) zero
2
3 
(3)  rad (4) rad (3)
2
SECTION-B B
136. A proton moving with a constant velocity
passes through a region of space without
any change in its velocity. If E and B 
(4)
represents the electric and magnetic fields
18
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
139. A semi circular current loop is placed in an
B
uniform magnetic field of 0.5T tesla as shown.
If the radius of loop is 0.5 m, the magnetic
force on the loop is
r
(3) r=a

(1) zero (2)8N

r
r=a
(3)  2 /   N
(4)
(4) 2N
142. Two circular coils P and Q of 100 turns
140. A long horizontal rigidly supported wire each have same radius of  cm . The
carries a current 96A. Directly above it and currents in P and Q are 4A and 3A
parallel to it at a distance 4 mm, another wire respectively. P and Q are placed with their
of 0.144N weight per metre carrying a planes mutually perpendicular with their
current ‘I’ is floating in air due to magnetic centers coincide. The resultant magnetic
repulsion. Then I is field induction at the center of the coils in
mT is
(1) 30 A in the same direction as upper wire
(1) 5 (2) 20
(2) 30 A in opposite to that of upper wire
(3) 36 A in opposite to that of upper wire (3) 10 (4) 16
(4) 36 A in the same direction as upper wire 143. Statement (A) : Ampere’s circutal law is valid
141. A long thin pipe of a circular cross-section of for steady currents only.
Sttement (B) : A charged particle projected
radius ‘a’ is carrying steady current I. The
parallel to a thin long straight current
correct graph for the magnetic field with conductor doesn’t experience any force
radial distance ‘r’ from the axis of wire will (1) Both A and B are true
be (2) A is true and B is false
B (3) Both A and B are false
(4) A is false and B is true
144.The difference of speed of light in the two
media A and B  vA  vB  is 2 107 m / s . If
r the refractive index of medium B is 1.5 , then
r=a
(1) the ratio of refractive index of medium B to
medium A is: (Given: speed of light in
B vacuum C  3 108 ms1 )
(1) 1.25 (2) 2
(3) 0.8 (4) 1.8
145. A narrow parallel beam of light is incident
paraxially on a solid transparent sphere of
r radius ‘r’ kept in air. What should be the
r=a refractive index if the beam is to be focused
(2)
at the farther surface of the sphere?
(1) 1.5 (2) 2
(3) 1.3 (4) 3
19
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
146. A parallel beam of light strikes a piece of optical path length of light ray from A to B is
transparent glass having cross section as :
shown in the figure below. Correct shape of
the emergent wavefront will be (figures are
schematic and not drawn to scale) A
a 600
vacuum
0

300
b
B

2 3 2b
(1)  2b (2) 2a 
a 3
2b
(3) 2a  (4) 2a  2b
3
(1) (2) 150. A light ray falls perpendicularly on one face
of an equilateral prism, having refractive
index 2 . The angle of deviation is :
(1) 300 (2) 1200
0
(3) 90 (4) 600
(3) (4)
CHEMISTRY
147. The image of a small dot fixed on the wall of SECTON –A
a room is to be obtained on the opposite wall 151. The one which decreases with dilution is
4 m away by means of a large convex lens. (1) Ionization in weak electrolytes
What is the maximum possible focal length of (2) Specific conductance
the lens required for the purpose?
(3) Equivalent conductance
(1)2 m (2) 3 m
(4) Molar conductance
(3)4 m (4) 1 m 152. Brine solution on electrolysis will not give
148. In an optics experiment, with the position of (1) NaOH (2) Cl2
the object fixed, a student varies the position
(3) H 2 (4) Na
of a convex lens and for each position, the
screen is adjusted to get a clear image of the 153. Amount of electricity that can deposit 108
object. A graph between the object distance u gm of silver from AgNO3 solution is
and the image distance v , from the lens, is (1) 1 faraday (2) 1 ampere
plotted using the same scale for the two axes. (3) 1 coulomb (4) 10 faraday
A straight line passing through the origin and 154. The molar conductances of
making an angle of 45 with the x -axis meets NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at infinite
the experimental curve at P . The coordinates dilution are 126.45, 426.16 aand 91
of P will be ohm1 cm2 mol1 respectively. The molar
 f f 
(1)  ,  (2)  f , f  conductance of CH3COOH at infinite
2 2 dilution is
(3)  4 f , 4 f  (4)  2 f , 2 f  (1) 201.28 ohm1 cm2 mol1
149. A ray of light AO in vacuum is incident on a (2) 390.71 ohm1 cm2 mol1
glass slab at angle 60 and refracted at angle (3) 698.28 ohm1 cm2 mol1
30 along OB as shown in the figure. The
(4) 540.48 ohm1 cm2 mol1
20
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
155. Which of the following expression is correct? (3) A  B  C  D
(1) G 
0
nFE0cell (4) B  D  A  C
161. Order of the reaction in radioactive
(2) G0  nFEcell
0
disintegration is
(3) G0  2.303RTE0cell (1) Second (2) Zero
(3) First (4) Third
(4) G0  nF log KC 162. 87.5% of radioactive substance disintegrated
156. Which one of the following metal is used in in 45 minutes. What is its half life ?
galvanization ? (1) 15 min (2) 30 min
(3) 45 min (4) 60 min
(1) Zn (2) Cu
3
(3) Cr (4) Ag 163. The time taken for the completion of of a
157. The acid used in lead storage battery is 4
first order reaction is
(1) H 2SO 4 (2) H 3 PO 4
 2.303  4
(3) HCl (4) HNO 3 (1)   log
 k  3
158. Reduction potential of chlorine electrode is
 2.303  1
maximum when it is in contact with (2)   log
(1) 0.1M HCl (2) 1M HCl  k  4
(3) 0.001M HCl (4) 0.01M HCl  2.303 
(3)   log 4
159. Match the items of Column I and Column II  k 
Column - I Column - II  2.303  3
i Lechlanche a Cell reaction (4)   log
 k  4
cell 2H 2  O2  2H 2 O
164. Given below are two statements. One is
ii Ni – Cd cell b Cell potential labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
remains constant labelled Reason (R).
during its life time Assertion (A) : Order and molecularity are
iii Fuel cell c Rechargeable always same for every reaction .
iv Mercury cell d Reaction at anode , Reason (R) : Molecularity is determined
Zn  Zn 2 +2e experimentally and order is the sum of the
e Converts energy of stoichiometric coefficient of a complex
combustion into reaction .
electrical energy In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(2) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(3) i – d, ii – a, iii – c, iv – b the correct explanation of (A).
(4) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
160. The rate of a reaction is expressed in (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
different ways as follows 165. Which one of the following cannot be
1 d C 1 d  D 1 d A d B hydrolysed further to give a simple
    polyhydroxy carbonyl compound.
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt dt (1) Monosaccharide
The reaction is (2) Disaccharide
(1) 4A  B  2C  3D (3) Polysaccharide
(2) B  3D  4A  2C (4) Oligosaccharide
21
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
166. Glucose reacts with acetic anhydride to form (3) Propane (4) Propyne
(1) Monoacetate (2) Tetraacetate 173. The IUPAC name of the complex
(3) Pentaacetate (4) Hexaacetate Pt(NH3 )3Br(NO2 )ClCl is
167. Gluconic acid is
(1) Triammine chloridobromido N – nitrito
(1) HOOC-(CHOH) 4 -CH 2OH
platinum (IV) chloride
(2) HOOC-(CHOH)4 -CHO (2) Triammine bromidochlorido N – nitrito
(3) HOOC-(CHOH)4 -COOH platinum (IV) chloride
(3) Triammine bromidochlorido N – nitrito
(4) HOOC-(CHOH)5 -COOH
platinum (II) chloride
168. Glucose cannot react with
(4) Triammine chloridobromide N – nitrito
(1) HCN (2) NH 2 OH platinum (II) chloride
(3) Conc.HNO3 (4) NaHSO3 174. M(aa)3  exhibits
169. Consider [Mn 2 (CO)10 ] and [Co 2 (CO)8 ] (aa=symmetrical bidentate ligand )
How many of the following statements are A) Optical isomerism
true for both the structures B) Geometrical isomerism
A. Metal – Metal linkage (1) Only A (2) Only B
B. Terminal CO groups (3) A and B (4) Neither A nor B
C. Bridging CO groups 175. The major product in the following reaction
D. Metal in zero oxidation state is
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) Only A, B, C (2) Only B, C, D
(3) Only A, C , D (4) Only A, B, D
170. The correct IUPAC name of the compound
NO 2
F

C2 H5
is :
(1) (2)
(1) 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
(2) 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene
(3) 3-ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
(4) 1-ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene Br
171. The mismatched combination is
(1) Chlorophyll – Co
(2) Estimation of hardness water - Na 2
EDTA
(3) Wilkinson catalyst - (Ph3P)3RhCl (3) (4)
(4) Chelating ligand – D – Penicillamine 176. Number of chlorides satisfying secondary
172. The major product C in the below mentioned valency in CoCl3 .4NH 3
reaction is : (1) 1 (2) 2
CH3CH2CH2Br 
alc.KOH
Δ
 A 
 B 
HBr
Caq.KOH (3) 3 (4) 6
(1) Propan-1-ol (2) Propan-2-ol 22
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
177. Given below are two statements. One is (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is is correct.
labelled Reason (R). 181. Which of the following reaction is Swarts
Assertion(A): The metal carbon bond in reaction ?
metal carbonyls possesses both σ and π (1) C2 H5Cl  AgF  C2 H 2 F  AgCl
character. (2) C2 H5 Cl  NaBr  C2 H5 Br  NaCl
Reason (R): The ligand to metal bond is a π
(3) C2 H5 Cl  KI  C2 H5 I  KCl
bond and metal to ligand bond is a σ bond
In the light of the above statements, choose (4) C2 H5 Cl  KBr  C2 H 5 Br  KCl
the correct answer from the options given 182. Butane nitrile may be prepared by heating
below. (1) Propyl alcohol with ethanolic KCN
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (2) Butyl alcohol with ehtanolic KCN
correct explanation of (A). (3) Butyl chloride with ethanolic KCN
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not (4) Propyl chloride with ethanolic KCN
the correct explanation of (A). 183 Regarding isomeric dichloro benzene
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. derivatives, the correct match is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false. Column – I Column II
178. I) Dipolemoment A) p>o>m
CH3COOAg+C2 H5Cl  A(organic compound) II) Melting point B) o>p>m
Wrong statement about ‘A’ is III) Boiling point C) o>m>p
(1) A is an ester (1) I – A ; II – C; III - B
(2) IUPAC name of ‘A’ is ethyl ethanoate (2) I – C ; II – A; III - B
(3) Functional group isomer of ‘A’ is (3) I – B ; II – A; III - C
butyric acid (4) I – B ; II – A; III – A
(4) All carbons in ‘A’ are sp 2 hybridized
Cl OH
179. C2 H5Cl(excess) 
NH3
alcoholic
 A(final) .
Covalency of ‘N’ in ‘A’ is 

(1) 4 (2) 3 184.
(3) 2 (4) 1 Reaction conditions during the conversion
180. Given below are two statements. are
Statement I : Complexes containing (1) Warm water
ambidentate ligands exhibit linkage (2) Aq. NaOH, H +
isomerism
(3) Aq. NaOH at 623 K and 320 atm, H +
Statement II : Co-ordination isomerism is
shown by anionic complexes only (4) Aq. NaOH at 448 K, H +
In light of the above statements, choose the 185. CH 3  I  CH 3  Br  CH 3  Cl  CH 3 F
correct answer from the options given below. represents the correct decreasing order of
(1) Both statement I and statement II are A) Boiling point B) Reactivity
correct. C) Bond enthalpy D) Dipole moment
(2) Both statement I and statement II are (1) A, B and D only (2) A and D only
incorrect. (3) A and B only (4) A,B and C only
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is SECTION - B
incorrect.
23
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
186. The conductivity of 0.20 M KCl solution at 192. Pick out the incorrect statement(s) from the
298 K is 0.0248 Scm1 . What will be its following
a) Glucose exists in two different crystalline
molar conductivity ?
forms α-D- glucose and -D- glucose
(1) 12.4 S cm2
b) α-D- glucose and -D- glucose are
2
(2) 1.24 cm anomers
(3) 0.124 ohm cm eq 1 2 1 c) α-D- glucose and -D- glucose are
enantiomers
(4) 124 S cm2 mol1 d) Sucrose on hydrolysis gives invert sugar.
187. Standard electrode potential of cell e) Starch is a non reducing sugar.
Pt,H 2 /H + Ag + /Ag is (E 0  0.8V) (1) a and b only (2) b and c only
Ag + /Ag
(3) b and d only (4) c and e only
(1) 1.2 V (2) 0.8 V
193. C6 H5 NH 2   A  B  C 
2NaNO +HCl KI
(3) 1.2 V (4) 0.8V 0 0 5 C

188. The rate expression for the reaction Here B and C are
(1) C6 H 5 I,N 2 (2) C6 H 5 I,O 2
A(g)  B(g)  C(g) , is rate = k  A   B .
2 1/2

(3) C6 H5I,I 2 (4) C6 H5CH 2 I,N 2

What changes in the initial concentrations of
194. CH3CH2 Br   X  A.
Mg 3 3 (CH ) C-OH
A and B will cause the rate of reaction to
ether
increase by a factor of eight ?
A  2,B  2
Product A is
(1)
(1) C 2 H 6
(2) A  2,B  4
(3) A  1,B  4 (2) (CH 3 )3CH

(CH3 )3C  O  Br
(4) A  4,B  1 (3)

189. If the activation energy for the forward (4) (CH3 )3C  O  CH3
195. Given below are two statements
reaction is 150kJ mol1 and that of the
Statement – I : Aqueous solution of
reverse reaction is 260kJ mol1 . What is
Pt(NH3 )2Cl2  is a very good conductor of
the enthalpy change for the reaction ?
electricity
(1) 410kJ mol1 (2) 110kJ mol1 Statement – II : Cr(H2 O)6  Cl3 can exhibit
1 1
(3) 110kJ mol (4) 410kJ mol hydrate isomerism
190. The activation energy of a reaction at 1000 K In light of the above statements, choose the
is found to be 4.606 K cal mol. The ratio of correct answer from the options given below.
rate constant to the Arrhenius factor constant (1) Both statement I and statement II are
is correct.
(1) 0.02 (2) 0.01 (2) Both statement I and statement II are
(3) 0.001 (4) 0.1 incorrect.
191. Number of chiral carbon atoms in (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
β-D(+) glucopyranose is incorrect.
(1) Six (2) Five (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
(3) Three (4) Four is correct.

24
 NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)
196. (3) monodentate ligand
aqueous ethanolic KCN (4) bidentate ligand
C
CH3CH 2 Br
aqueous ethanolic AgCN
D
Covalence of carbon in the functional group
of C and D are
(1) 3, 3 (2) 4, 4
(3) 4, 3 (4) 3, 4
197. What is the correct pattern of distribution of
electrons in d orbitals of Fe +2 in
K 4  Fe(CN)6  based on crystal field theory ?
(1) t 22g eg4 (2) t 42 g eg2
(3) t 62g eg0 (4) t 32g e3g
198. The geometry and magnetic behavior of the
complex  Ni(CO)4  are
(1) Square planar geometry and
diamagnetic
(2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(3) Square planar geometry and
paramagnetic
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
199. Given below are two statements. One is
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : o – chloro toluene
and p – chlorotoluene can be easily separated
Reason (R): There is a large difference in the
melting point of o – chloro toluene and p –
chloro toluene
In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
200. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate ion is a/an :
(1) hexadentate ligand
(2) ambidentate ligand
25
NEET UT-3 (01-07-24)

26