EVALUATION

IN
INTRODUCTION TO INDUSTRIAL SECURITY CONCEPT
By: JOEMAR J. DAMAYO, RCrim., CSP, MM, CAR

Multiple choice: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item by encircling the letter that corresponds to your answer.
Erasure is strictly prohibited.
1. This involves the security of plants and business enterprises which includes the safeguarding
of personnel, processes, properties and operations.
a. communication security c. document security
b. industrial security d. personnel security
2. An industrial complex must establish its first line of physical defense. It must have:
a. communication barriers c. perimeter barriers
b. the building itself d. window barriers
3. It is a natural or man-made structure or physical device which is capable of restricting,
deterring, or delaying illegal entry to an installation.
a. barrier c. fence
b. hazard d. wall
4. It provides means and ways by which all personnel and employees are trained to make them
security conscious.
a. security check c. security education
b. security investigation d. security promotion
5. It is known in industrial security as the weakest link in security chain.
a. barriers b. inspections c. managers d. personnel
6. it is the protection of high-ranking officials from harm, kidnapping and other similar acts.
a. asset protection c. document security
b. physical security d. VIP security
7. The protective lighting, perimeter barriers and systems are known in industrial security as
physical security.
a. accounting b. guarding c. relieving d. reporting
8. The license of private security guard is processed and issued by the:
a. Philippine National Police
b. National Police Commission
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
d. Security and Exchange Commission
9. The registration of security agency to operate as a business entity must be done at the:
a. Department od Interior and Local Government
b. National Police Commission
c. Security and Exchange Commission
d. Philippine National Police
10. What should be undertaken by a security officer who will prepare a comprehensive security
program for his industrial plan?
a. security conference c. security check
b. security survey d. security education
11. If access is limited only to the authorized, this particular place is referred to as:
a. compromise area c. danger area
b. exclusive area d. restricted area
12. The management of keys in a plant, office or business organization to prevent unauthorized
access and use is referred to as:
a. key management c. key control
b. lock central d. security key control
13. Protection of classified documents/matters concerning their preparation, classification,
reproduction, handling, transmission, disposal and destruction.
a. document security c. operational security
b. organizational security d. physical security
14. What is the system of natural or man-made barriers place between the potential intruder and
the object/person/matter being protected?
a. Communication security c. document security
b. physical security d. personnel security
15. New employees should be briefed on security rules and regulations of the organization and
the importance of observing them. This process is called:
a. security promotion c. security orientation
b. security reminders d. security investigation
16. A security survey of a plant or industrial firm is also known by the other terms, except:
a. risk assessment c. robbery evaluation
b. security audit d. vulnerability assessment
17. This refers to the list that includes officials and citizens who are cleared to attend meetings
in Malacañang Palace.
a. access list b. black list c. target list d. white list
18. It is the ongoing process which ensures that new risks are recognized and that established
deterrents remain necessary and cost effective.
a. inspection b. risk analysis c. interrogation d. evaluation
19. A person’s suitability to given a security clearance is determined through a process called:
a. security training c. security promotion
b. security education d. security investigation
20. What is the agency that established the first internal affairs unit?
a. NYPD b. Scotland Yard c. Chicago P. D. d. Interpol
21. Which of the detective agency popularized the motto “we never sleep”?
a. Pinkertons b. burns c. US Marshals d. secret service
22. Which part of a burglary M.O. file is used to distinguished “skilled” and “unskilled”?
a. type of premise c. by means of entry
b. type of loot d. trade mark
23. In security parlance, who are the most likely “receivers” for an unskilled burglar?
a. fences c. friends and family
b. pawnshops d. construction workers
24. In industrial plant, who are the most likely suspects in most burglary investigation?
a. employees b. friends c. visitors d. neighbors
25. This is a place in an industrial plant where a security agency will establish its personnel
identification and checking system.
a. control point c. detachment headquarters
b. guard house d. branch office
26. Before a security guard of a private security agency renders security service to its client,
there must be a contract that must bind them. This is called:
a. contract service c. contract of work
b. security service contract d. security contract
27. When is the enactment of Republic Act number 5487 otherwise known as Private Security
Agency Law?
a. June 13, 1969 c. October 3, 1972
b. October 3, 1973 d. July 13, 1969
28. The blue guards disaster relief and rehabilitation medal is known as:
a. medalya sa pagtulong sa nasalanta
b. medalya ng sugatang magiting
c. medalya ng papuri
d. medalya ng kasanayan
29. Medalya ng katangian asal or known as the blue guard’s special action medal will be
awarded to any blue guard member with the corresponding requirement except:
a. raja b. datu c. lakan d. maginoo
30. What type of security clearance involves the highest level of secrecy?
a. top secret c. sensitive compartmentalized information
b. extremely sensitive d. clearance at all level
31. In the year 1950’s, private security agency guards were under the supervision and control of
the ____?
a. Philippine Constabulary c. INP
b. Municipal/City Mayor d. PCSUSIA
32. What kind of barrier is established to protect the surrounding of an installation or plant?
a. animal barrier b. energy barrier c. human barrier d. structural barrier
33. A more in-depth study including risk management, analysis of risk factors, environmental
and physiological security, analysis of crime patterns, fraud and internal theft is:
a. security analysis c. appraisal
b. building inspection d. security survey
34. The simplest form of lock in the principles of additional protective measures.
a. ward lock b. cylinder lock c. yale lock d. combination
lock
35. How many hours is the duration of the basic security guard course?
a. 150 hours b. 48 hours c. 300 hours d. 100 hours
36. The private security agency training law was amended and took effect on:
a. October 4, 1994 c. October 8, 1995
b. October 8, 1994 d. October 8, 1996
37. Which of the following firearms should not be issued to a private security guard under
normal condition?
a. cal. .45 b. cal. .38 c. magnum .22 d. 12-gauge shotgun
38. Which of the following in security organization is not a line leadership staff?
a. detachment commander c. inspector
b. chief inspector d. post-in-charge
39. A regular license to operate (LTO) is issued to any private security agency having:
a. 200 guards or more but not more exceeding 500
b. 100 guards or more but not exceeding 1000
c. 200 guards or more but not more than 1000
d. 150 guards or more but not exceeding 1000
40. The issuance of a key to open main entrance gate and office is called:
a. coded lock b. solitary lock c. mason keying d. key control
41. A system usually activated by heat from a fire and the sprinkler heads then discharge water
over the fire area is referred to as:
a. alarm system c. standpipe system
b. sprinkler system d. ionization system
42. An integrated system of underground and overhead piping, designed in accordance with fire
protection engineering standards, and connected to one or more automatic water supplies is
called:
a. alarm system c. standpipe system
b. sprinkler system d. ionization system
43. The security force maintained and operated by any private company and guard system?
a. company guard force c. private security agency
b. government security unit d. none of them
44. Which of these types of lock can be opened and closed remotely by electronics means?
a. electrical lock c. magnetic lock
b. combination lock d. coded lock
45. An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, integrity, morals and loyalty of
individuals, to determine person suitability for appointment or access to classified matters is
known as:
a. PSI b. LAC c. NAC d. BI
46. In industrial security, when access is limited only to authorized personnel, the area is
referred to as:
a. restricted area c. visitor’s area
b. safe area d. detour area
47. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an industrial compound
allowing security personnel for better observation and patrol movement is known as:
a. protective zone c. clear zone
b. twilight zone d. patrol lane zone
48. A new private security agency shall be issued a temporary license to operate its security
business for how long?
a. 1-year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 6 months
49. A hazard due to the importance of the firm to the national economy and security.
a. relative critically c. relative vulnerability
b. relative criticism d. critical vulnerability
50. One of the following hazards does not belong to the group.
 a. floods caused by typhoon c. extreme temperature
b. lightning storm d. carelessness
51. Among the following, which is the best counter measure against sabotage?
a. efficient, alert and trained guard force c. proper screening of personnel
b. physical security and inspection d. all of the above
52. Stealing information, using blackmail, penetration and operational tactics and various forms
of threats to obtain information are methods employed by:
a. terrorist b. saboteur c. casual pilferer d. espionage agent
53. The most dangerous person to deal with while planning and implementing security
measures and techniques is:
a. saboteur b. espionage agent c. pilferer d. kidnapper
54. Failure to detect shortage and inaccurate inventories with inventory losses may be labeled
as:
a. pilferage b. sabotage c. espionage d. subversive activity
55. The most common requirements in order for a pilferer to succeed in his acts:
a. location of items to be pilfered c. access to the items to gain possession
b. removal and disposal of items d. all of the above
56. What is the best countermeasure for casual pilferage?
a. spot check of outgoing persons and vehicles c. inventory control regularly
done
b. aggressive security education to employees d. all of the above
57. The employee of a security agency who is not required a license to practice security
profession.
a. security clerk c. security consultant
b. security manager d. security director
58. One of these is not considered as basic qualification for an applicant of a license to exercise
a profession as security guard.
a. Filipino citizen c. college graduate
b. high school graduate d. 21 years old
59. What is the authorized firearm that could be licensed by a security agency?
a. 36 caliber revolver c. M-16 rifle
b. .45 caliber pistol d. M-14 rifle
60. What is the best description of a security guard?
a. an agent of person in authority c. considered a person in authority
b. a peace officer d. all of the above
61. It is the highest rank of security officers authorized by Republic Act 5487?
a. security manager c. security consultant
b. chief security officer d. chief of police
62. The best sources of information through investigation in security parlance:
a. victims, offenders and witnesses c. judges, prosecutors and counsels
b. bystanders, drivers and before d. all of the above
63. A place where the project officer meets his assets is called:
a. drops b. safe house c. secret model d. prince palace
64. The organization and association: authorized to issue the implementing rules and
regulations pertaining to Republic Act 5487 refers to:
a. Security Agencies and Guards Supervision Division (SAGSD)
b. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective Agency Operator, inc.
(PADPAO)
c. private security agencies
d. government security
65. The term watchman refers to:
a. security guard b. security manager c. supervisor d. operator
66. The group or force of selected men trained or grouped into functional unit for the purpose of
protecting operational processes from disruption which would impede efficiency of operation of
particular plant, facility, installation or activity, refer to:
a. private security agency c. government security force
b. company security force d. all of the above
67. Any person, association, partnership, firm or private corporation, who contacts, recruits,
train, furnishes or post a security guard refer to:
a. private security agency c. government security force
b. company security force d. all of the above
68. The security force or unit maintained by any government entity other than the AFP and PNP
for the purpose of securing the office or compound and extension of such government entity
refer to:
a. private security agency c. government security force
b. company security force d. all of the above
69. The security force or unit maintained and operated by the private companies or corporation
for its own security requirements refer to:
a. private security agency c. government security force
b. company security force d. all of the above
70. The following are the advantages of engaging the services of private security agency
except:
a. economical c. security admin problems are reduced
b. personnel are separated from the employees d. no company loyalty
71. Any person who does detective works for hire, reward or commission, other than members
of the PNP and AFP or other law enforcement agency of the government refers to:
a. security guard b. security manager c. private detective d. intelligence
72. The following are the services being undertaken by a private detective except:
a. character check of a person c. locating missing persons
b. surveillance works d. in uniform and posted to a security post
73. Any document issued by the CPNP and his duly authorized representatives recognizing a
person to be qualified to perform his duties as a security guard refers to:
a. license to exercise profession c. license to operate security agency
b. license to carry FA d. license to kill
74. The document issued by the CPNP or his duly authorized representatives authorizing a
person to engage in the occupation, calling a person SG or PD, to established, engaged,
manage or operate an individual on private security agency or company force refers to:
 a. license to exercise profession c. license to operate
b. license to carry FA d. license to enter contract
75. The following belong to general qualifications required in the exercise of security profession
except:
a. Filipino citizen c. convicted of a crime
b. good moral character d. college graduate
76. In addition to the general qualification required in the security profession, a security officer
should be, except:
a. at least graduated from security training course
b. retired personnel and PNP/AFP members
c. must not posses any of the disqualification
d. an active army personnel
77. The orientation of incoming security personnel or guards regarding the nature of the security
profession and the law that governs its operation refers to:
a. security officer training c. candidate office qualifying course
b. pre-licensing training course d. communication training course
78. The following are exempted from undergoing pre-licensing training course except:
a. BS criminology graduate c. advance graduate of ROTC
b. veterans and retired PNP/AFP members d. high school graduate
79. The following are the legal grounds for termination of security personnel, except:
a. expiration of contract c. revocation of license to exercise profession
b. performance of duties and responsibilities d. loss of trust and confidence by
PSA
80. The instrument used for the propulsion projectiles by means of the expansive force of
gasses from the gunpowder refers to:
a. firearm b. fire alarm c. fireman d. freedom
81. Upon complying with the requirements prescribed by the CPNP pertinent to possession of
firearm. The private security agency shall be entitled to possess the following, except:
a. shotgun not higher than 12-gauge c. caliber 22
b. machine guns d. other law powered rifles
82. The written instruction issued by the agency to their guards to perform lawful function at a
specific time, date and place.
a. mission order b. duty detail order c. memorandum d. special order
83. The following are justifications in the confiscation of firearm, except when the firearm is
about to be used in the commissions of a crime.
a. when the firearm is being used in pursuit of criminals
b. when the firearm being carried by SG is unlicensed or unauthorized by law
c. when the confiscation of the firearm is directed by order of the court
d. none of the above
84. The license to possess firearm maybe revoked under any of the following grounds, except:
a. failure to submit issued firearm for verification
b. carrying of firearm without appropriate duty detail order
c. the firearms has complete documents
d. when firearm serial number has been duplicated
85. The state or quality of being secured, freedom from fear or danger, the assurance or
certainty refers to:
a. security c. safety inspection
b. industrial management d. security department
86. The protection resulting from the application of various measures to prevent or delay the
enemy or unauthorized persons in gaining information through the communication system refers
to:
a. communications security c. transmission security
b. physical security d. document security
87. The kind of security hazards which affects the safe operation of the facility caused by human
action, accidental or intentional.
a. natural hazards c. physical barrier
b. human hazards d. security set-up
88. The hazards which caused damage, disturbance and problems of the normal functioning of
human activities including security and normally caused by natural phenomena.
a. natural hazards c. physical barrier
b. human hazards d. security set-up
89. A medium of structure which defines the physical limits of an installation or area to restrict or
impede access thereto.
a. physical barriers c. natural barriers
b. perimeter barriers d. building
90. These barriers include mountains, cliff, canyons, rivers, seas, marshes, deserts or terrain
difficult to traverse and they belong to:
a. physical barriers c. natural barriers
b. perimeter barriers d. building
91. The barriers which are structural constructions like fences, walls, floors, roofs, grills and the
like.
a. physical barriers c. natural barriers
b. perimeter barriers d. building
92. An additional overhang of barbed wire placed on vertical perimeter fences upward and
outward with a 45-degree angle with 3 to 4 strands of barbed wire and are 6 inches apart.
a. top guard b. towers c. signs and notices d. clear zones
93. The houses like structures above the perimeter barriers purposely used for observation of
what is happening outside the perimeter and at the roof top of a building.
a. top guard b. towers c. signs and notices d. clear zones
94. The common light bulbs in which light is produced by the resistance of a filament to electric
current refers to:
a. incandescent lamp c. mercury vapor lamp
b. gaseous discharged lamp d. sodium vapor lamp
95. The aural or visual signal given by the annunciator to security guard when intruder actuates
device in a protected area.
a. signal b. lighting c. alarms d. security
96. This is a device designed to detect and not to prevent criminal acts but should be used
normally as an adjunct and not a replacement of the human guard forces refers to:
 a. intrusion alarm device c. perimeter fences
b. lighting device d. building and walls
97. The mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to prevent entry to a
building, room, container, or hiding place.
a. lock b. guard dogs c. barriers d. access list
98. The portable and detachable lock having a pivoted or sliding hasp which passes through a
staple ring or the like and is then made fast or secured.
a. combination lock b. master key c. padlock d. key control
99. The management of keys in a plant or business organization to prevent unauthorized
individuals’ access to the keys.
a. combination lock b. master key c. padlock d. key control
100. The type of lock that can be opened by inserting a coded card in a slot in the lock or by
pushing the correct buttons on the surface of the lock is called:
a. combination locks b. coded lock c. electronic lock d. padlock