CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

RISE OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. Name the event that mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe

a) Restoration of Bourbon kings to power b) Greek war of independence

c) The July Revolution

d) Installation of constitutional monarchy with Louis Philippe at its head

2. Which of the following did the European Conservatives not believe in?

a) Traditional Institutions of state policy b) Strengthened monarchy

c) A return to a society of pre-revolutionary days

d) Preservation of the Church

3. Which one of the following statements is not true of Aristocracy?

a) They owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses

b) They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society

c) Their families were often connected by ties of marriage

d) They often clashed with the ideas of the monarchs

4. Fill in the blanks

................ was the famous English poet, who organised funds and later went to fight in
the Greek War of Independence.

OR

................ of 1832 recognised Greece as the independent nation.

5. Match the column I with column II and select the correct answer.

Column I Column II

i) Victor Emmanuel II a) Prussia

ii) North German confederation b) Kingdom of Italy

iii) Giuseppe Mazzini Empire c) Habsburg and Ottoman

iv) Slav Nationalism d) Young Italy

a) i - d, ii - b, iii - a, iv - c b) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d

c) i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b d) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c

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6. Which one of the following is not true regarding the Civil Code of 1804?
a) Abolition of all privileges based on birth b) Destruction of democracy in France
c) Establishment of equality before law d) Securing right to property
7. Arrange the following events related to the Formation of Britain as a nation, in chronological
order.
i) The Act of Union between England and Scotland
ii) The English parliament, which had seized power from the monarchy
iii) Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom
iv) Catholic revolts against British dominance
a) iii - i - ii - iv b) i - ii - iii - iv c) iv - i - ii - iii d) ii - i - iv - iii
8. What was the meaning of liberalism in early 19th century in Europe?
OR
Name the treaty of 1832 that recognised Greece as an independent nation.
SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS
Assertion Reason Type questions
In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.
9. Assertion (A) : Giuseppe Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the
natural units of mankind.
Reason (R) : Metternich described him as “the most dangerous enemy of our social
order”. 1
10. Assertion (A) : The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871
was the area called the Balkans.
Reason (R) : A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman
Empire. 1
11. Assertion (A) : Nationalism, aligned with imperialism, led Europe to disaster in 1914.
Reason (R) : Many countries in the world which had been colonised by the European
powers in the nineteenth century began to oppose imperial domination.1
12. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
In 1848, Frederic Sorrieu, a French artist, prepared a series of four prints visualising his
dream of a world made up of ‘democratic and social Republics’, as he called them. As
you would recall, artists of the time of the French Revolution personified Liberty as a
female figure - here you can recognise the torch of Enlightenment she bears in one hand
and the shattered remains of the symbols of absolutist institutions. In Sorrieu’s utopian
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 vision, the people of the world are grouped as distinct nations, identified through their
flags and national costume. Leading the procession, way past the status of Liberty, are
the United States and Switzerland, which by this time were already nation-states. France,
identifiable by the revolutionary tricolour, has just reached the statue. The concept and
practices of a modern state, in which a centralised power exercised sovereign control
over a clearly defined territory, has been developing over a long period of time in Europe.
But a nation state was one in which the majority of its citizens, and not only its rulers,
came to develop a sense of common identity and shared history or descent.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate options.

i) What was the theme of painting made by French artist? 4×1=4

a) Constitutional Monarchy b) Absolute Monarchy

c) Democratic and Social Republic d) True democracy

ii) The utopian vision of French artist Frederic Sorrieu was

a) The people of the world are grouped as distinct nations, identified through their
flags and national costume.

b) The concepts and practices of a modern state, in which a centralised power

exercised sovereign control over a clearly defined territory.

c) Leading the procession, way past the statue of Liberty, as the United States and
Switzerland, which by this time were already nation-states.

d) France, identifiable by the revolutionary tricolour, has just reached the statue.

iii) French Revolution personified Liberty as a female figure, she bears the torch of
Enlightenment in one hand and ............... in the other.

a) Constitution b) Charter of Rights of Man

c) Charter of Rights of Woman d) Bible

iv) Which of the following pairs represent two nation states?

a) Spain and Portugal b) United States and Switzerland

c) Britain and Italy d) Japan and Turkey

13. “In the initial stages, the French armies were welcomed as harbingers of liberty. But the
initial enthusiasm soon turned to hostility”. Identify the reason from the following. 1

a) Increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the French armies

b) Introduced uniform laws, standardised weights and measures

c) Secured equality before the law and the right to property

d) Simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system

14. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered
over several dynasty states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire. During the
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 middle of the nineteenth century. Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one,
Sardinia Piedmont was ruled by an Italian princely house. The north was under Austrian
Habsburg’s the centre was ruled by the Pope and the southern regions were under the
domination of the Bourbon king of Spain. Even the Italian language had not acquired one
common form and still had many regional and local variations.

What could be the reason behind that the Italian language had not acquired one common
form and still had many regional and local variations? 1

a) Italy never had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were not scattered
over several dynastic states and the Habsburg Empire.

b) Italy had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over several
dynastic states and the Habsburg Empire.

c) Italy never had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were not scattered
over several dynastic states and the French Empire.

d) Italy had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over only two
dynastic states and the Dutch Empire.

OR

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.

In 1815, representatives of the European powers - Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria -
who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe.
The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor or Duke Metternich. The delegates
drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that
had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had
been deposited during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the
territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries
of France to prevent French expansion in future.

How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? Select the appropriate option?

a) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe

b) With the restoration of Bourbon Dynasty

c) Austria was not given the control of Northern Italy

d) By giving power to the German confederation

15. Consider these statements about Romanticism 1

i) Romanticism was cultural movement

ii) Romanticism was a political movement

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

a) i only b) ii only c) Both i and ii d) Neither i nor ii

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SS-Ch-1A
16. Analyse the information given below, considering one of the following correct
options.
While it is easy enough to represent a ruler through a portrait or a status, how does one
go about giving a face to a nation? Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries found
a way out by personifying a nation. In other words, they represented a country as if it
were a person.
a) Portrait of a nation b) Idol of a nation
c) Personification of a nation d) Visualising a nation 1
17. Study the picture and answer the question that follows. 1
Which of the following aspects best suits
the ‘sword’ in the image?
a) Heroism
b) Symbol of Strength
c) Readiness of Fight
d) Symbol of freedom

18. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.
Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered
over several dynastic states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire. During the
middle of the nineteenth Century, Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one,
Sardinia - Piedmont, was under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by the Pope
and the southern regions were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain. Even
the Italian language had not acquired one common form and still had many regional and
local variations.
i) Which Italian state was ruled by an Italian princely house before its unification? 1
ii) Who described Giuseppe Mazzini as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’.1
iii) What circumstances led to the Unification of Italy? 2
SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
19. Describe any three conditions that led to the formation of the British nation state. 3
20. How did nationalism develop through culture in Europe? Explain. 3
21. “In Britain, he formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or
revolution”. Validate the statement with relevant arguments. 5
OR
How did the Balkan region become a source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871?
22. “The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789”.
Explain the meaning of nationalism and throw light on the statement. 5

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 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

RISE OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. The Nation is most often symbolized in which of the following forms?

a) History and Fiction b) Figures or Images
d) Popular Prints d) Folklore and Songs
2. Identify the three wars led by Otto van Bismarck that completed the process of German
Unification.
a) Austria, Denmark and France b) France, Austria and England
c) Denmark, France and England d) England, Austria and Denmark
3. The following characteristics of Marianne were drawn from those of Liberty and of the
Republic.
a) The red cap, The broken chain, The oak leaves
b) The red cap, The tricolour, The cockade
c) The broken chain, The tricolour, The cockade
d) The oak leaves, The cockade, The tricolour
4. Fill in the blanks
The dream of World Wild Democratic and Social Republics - The pact between Nations,
a print was prepared by ....................
OR
Treaty of Constantinople recognised ................ as an independent nation.
5. Match the column I with column II and select the correct answer.

Column I Column II

i) Crown Of Oak leaves a) Being Freed

ii) Broken Chains b) Heroism
iii) Olive branch around the sword c) Symbol of German empire
iv) Breastplate with eagle d) Willingness to make peace
a) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d b) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a
c) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c d) i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c
6. Which one of the following is true regarding how the new artists depicted liberty during
the French Revolution?
a) As a female figure with a torch of enlightenment in one hand and the Charter of Rights
of Man in the other hand
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 b) Blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing scales
c) The gold, red and black tricolour d) Rays of the rising sun
7. Consider the following
i) Johann Gottifried - German philosopher
ii) Uprising in Brussels - Belgium breaking away from the United Kingdom of the
Netherlands
iii) Delacroix - French Romantic painters
iv) Grimm Brothers - Folktales and Nation-building
Which of the above are correctly matched?
a) ii and iii only b) i, ii and iii only c) ii, iii and iv only d) i, ii, iii and iv
8. Why did big European powers meet in Berlin in 1885?
OR
What was the strong demand of the emerging middle classes in Europe during 19 th
century?
SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS
Assertion Reason Type questions
In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.
9. Assertion (A) : Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation.
Reason (R) : Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors who supplied
raw materials and gave them orders for finished textiles but drastically
reduced their payments. 1
10. Assertion (A) : Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation.
Reason (R) : During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven
states. 1
11. Assertion (A) : The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial
one within the liberal movement, in which large numbers of women
had participated actively over the years.
Reason (R) : When the Frankfurt parliament convened in the Church of St. Paul,
women were granted the rights. 1
12. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
Ernst Renan, ‘What is a Nation?
In a lecture delivered at the University of Sorbonne in 1882, the French philosopher Ernst
Renan (1823-92) outlined his understanding of what makes a nation. The lecture was
subsequently published as a famous essay entitled ‘Qu’est-ce qu’une nation?’ (‘What is a
7 SS-Ch-1B
 Nation?’). In this essay Renan criticises the notion suggested by others that a nation is
formed by a common language, race, religion, or territory:

‘A nation is the culmination of a long past of endeavours, sacrifice and devotion. A heroic
past, great men, glory, that is the social capital upon which one bases a national idea. To
have common glories in the past, to have a common will in the present, to have performed
great deeds together, to wish to perform still more, these are the essential conditions of
being a people. A nation is therefore a large-scale solidarity .... Its existence is a daily
plebiscite ..... A province is its inhabitants; if anyone had the right to be consulted, it is the
inhabitant. A nation never had any real interest in annexing or holding on to a country
against its will. The existence of nations is a good thing, a necessity even. Their existence
is a guarantee of liberty, which would be lost if the world had only one law and only one
master’.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate options.

i) A nation is the culmination of a long past of 4×1=4

a) sacrifice b) endeavours c) devotion d) All of these

ii) What does a nation guarantee to its citizens?

a) Happiness b) Liberty c) Wealth d) Health

iii) Ernst Renan was a ................ philosopher.

a) British b) American c) Japanese d) French

iv) What is/are the essential condition/s of being a people?

a) to have common glories in the past b) To have performed great deeds together

c) To have a common will in the present d) All of these

13. “The Balkan area became an area of intense conflict”. Find out the reason(s) for conflict.
i) Different Slavic nationalities struggled to define their identity and independence 1

ii) Each Balkan state hoped to gain more territory at the expense of the others

iii) The Balkans also became the scene of big power rivalry

a) i and ii are correct b) i and iii are correct

c) All the above are correct d) None of the above

14. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Socially and politically, a landed aristocracy was the dominant class on the continent.
The members of this class were united by a common way of life that cut across regional
divisions. They owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses. They spoke
French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society. Their families were often connected
by ties of marriage. This powerful aristocracy was, however, numerically a small group.
The majority of the population was made up of the peasantry. To the west, the bulk of the
land was farmed by tenants and small owners, while in Eastern and Central Europe the
pattern of landholding was characterised by vast estates which were cultivated by serfs.
Aristocratic class used to speak French for the purpose of 1
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 a) diplomacy and high society b) farming on a big land
c) unity among the members d) educing regional divisions
OR
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.
Economists began to think in terms of the national economy. They talked of how the
nation could develop and what economic measures could help forge this nation together.
Friedrich List, Professor of Economics at the University of Tubingen in Germany, wrote in
1834: ‘The aim of the zollverein is to bind the Germans economically into a nation. It will
strengthen the nation materially as much by protecting its interests externally as by
stimulating its internal productivity. It ought to awaken and raise national sentiment through
a fusion of individual and provincial interests. The German people have realised that a
free economic system is the only means to engender national feeling.
What German people have realised about new economic system?
a) German people wanted to conquer more regions
b) German people realised the importance of closed economy
c) German people have realised that a free economic system is the only means to
engender national feeling
d) German people realised that a free economic system is obstacle to develop nationalism
15. Find out from the following, what economic liberalism stood for. 1
i) Abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital
ii) End of autocracy and clerical privileges
iii) Freedom for the individual and equality of all
iv) Freedom of markets
a) i and ii are correct b) i and iii are correct
c) ii and iv are correct d) i and iv are correct
16. Analyse the information given below, considering one of the following correct
options.
During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme
for a unitary Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for
the dissemination of his goals. The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831 and
1848 meant that the mantle now fell on Sardinia - Piedmont under its ruler King victor
Emmanuel II to unify the Italian states through war. In the eyes of the ruling elites of this
region, a unified Italy offered them the possibility of economic development and political
dominance. 1
a) Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Young Italy
b) Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Old Italy
c) Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Traditional Italy
d) Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Old France

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17. Which of the following aspect best significances this image?
a) Round table conference at London
b) Constituent Assembly of India
c) The Frankfurt Parliament in the
church of St. Paul
d) The Hall of Mirrors of Versailles

18. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

The model of the nation or the nation-state, some scholars have argued, is Great Britain.
In Birtain the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or
revolution. It was the result of a long-drawn-out process. There was no British nation prior
to the eighteenth century.

The development of nationalism did not come about only through wars and territorial
expansion. Culture played and important role in creating the idea of the nation: art and
poetry, stories and music helped express and shape nationalist feelings.

Romantic artists and poets generally criticised the glorification of reason and science
and focused instead on emotions, intuition and mystical feelings. Their effort was to create
a sense of a shared collective heritage, a common cultural past, as the basis of a nation.

i) Name the act which led to the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’. Also
name the countries which signed it. 1

ii) Name some of the symbols of new Britain. 1

iii) What is Romanticism? 2

SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

19. Explain any three provisions of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815. 3

20. Describe the events of French Revolution which had influenced the people belonging to
other parts of Europe. 3

21. How did a wave of economic nationalism strengthen the wider nationalist sentiment growing
in Europe? Explain. 5

OR

How did the Balkan region become a source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871?

22. Why was the period of 1848 considered as phase of the revolution of the Liberals in
Europe? Explain. 5

8 SS-Ch-1B
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

NATIONALISM IN INDIA Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. Baba Ramchandra, a sanyasi, was the leader of which of the following movements?

a) Khilafat Movement

b) Militant Guerrilla Movement of Andhra Pradesh

c) Peasants’ Movement of Awadh d) Plantation Workers’ Movement in Assam

2. Who was the author of the famous novel ‘Anandamath’?

a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay b) Abanindranath Tagore

c) Natesa Sastri d) Rabindranath Tagore

3. Which one of the following combination of colours was there in the ‘Swaraj flag’ designed
by Gandhiji in 1921?

a) Red, Green and White b) Red, Green and Yellow

c) Orange, White and Green d) Yellow, White and Green

4. Fill in the blanks

................ was known as Lion of Punjab.

OR

Due to a violent incident in ................ Gandhiji called off the Non-Cooperation movement.

5. Match the following items in the column A with those in column B and choose the correct
answer from the options given below.

Column A Column B

i) Salt March a) Amristsar

ii) Jallianwala Bagh b) Lahore

iii) Purna Swaraj c) Awadh

iv) Peasants movement d) Dandi

a) i - a, ii - b, iii - d, iv - c b) i - d, ii - b, iii - c, iv - a

a) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d a) i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c

6. What decision was made at the Nagpur Session of Congress in 1920?

OR

What resolution was passed at Calcutta session of Congress in September 1920?

1
7. Which of the following is not true regarding Rowlatt Act, 1919?
a) The act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council
b) It gave power to the government to repress political activities
c) It empowered the government to detain the political prisoners without trial
d) The act controlled the movement of plantation workers
8. Where did Mahatma Gandhiji start his famous ‘Salt March’ on 12th March 1930?
a) Dandi b) Chauri-Chaura c) Sabarmati d) Surat
SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS
9. Read the following information about Civil Disobedience Movement and identify it.
a) It arrived in India in 1928
b) It was greeted with the slogan ‘Go back Simon’
c) All parties joined this protest 1
10. Analyse the information given below considering one of the following correct
options. 1
Mahatma Gandhi’s letter was, in a way, an ultimatum. If the demands were not fulfilled by
11 March, the letter stated, the Congress would launch a civil disobedience campaign.
Irwin was unwilling to negotiate. So Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march
accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from
Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmathi to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi. The volunteers
walked for 24 days, about 10 miles a day. Thousands came to hear Mahatma Gandhi
wherever he stopped, and he told them what he meant by swaraj and urged them to
peacefully defy the British. On 6 April he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the
law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water.
a) Non-Cooperation Movement b) Salt March 1
c) Khilafat Movement d) Rowlatt Act

OR
Analyze the information given below, choose one of the following correct options.

After arriving in India from South Africa in January 1915, Mahatma Gandhi successfully
organized satyagraha movement in various places. In 1916, he travelled to Champaran in
Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system. Then
in 1917, he organized a satyagraha to support the peasants of the Kheda district of Gujarat.
Affected by crop failure and a plague epidemic, the peasants of Kheda could not pay the
revenue, and were demanding that revenue collection be relaxed. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi
went to Ahmedabad to organize a satyagraha movement amongst cotton mill workers.
Gandhiji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlett
Act.

a) Kheda b) Champaran c) Dandi d) Ahmedabad 1

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11. Arrange the following in the correct sequence.

i) Rowlatt Act Passed

ii) The Partition of Bengal officially came into existence

iii) Satyagraha Movement in Ahmedabad

iv) Satyagraha Movement in Kheda District (Gujarat) 1

a) iv - ii - i - iii b) ii - iii - iv - i c) ii - iv - iii - i d) i - iii - ii - iv

Questions 12 - 15, Assertion Reason Type questions

In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.

12. Assertion (A) : Mahatma Gandhiji found salt as a powerful symbol that could unite the
nation. 1

Reason (R) : Salt was something essential, consumed by the rich and the poor alike.

13. Assertion (A) : When the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted
with slogan ‘go back Simon’.

Reason (R) : The Commission did not have a single Indian member. 1

14. Assertion (A) : Some of the Muslim political organizations in India were lukewarm in
their response to the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Reason (R) : The First World War had ended with the defeat of Ottoman Turkey and
there were rumours that a harsh peace treaty was going to be imposed
on the Ottoman Emperor. 1

15. Assertion (A) : The Non-Cooperation Movement gradually slowed down for a variety
of reasons in the cities.

Reason (R) : As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding
imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian
textile mills and handlooms went up. 1

16. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows.
In the countryside, rich peasant communities - like the Patidars of Gujarat and the Jats of
Uttar Pradesh - were active in the movement. Being producers of commercial crops, they
were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices. As their cash income
disappeared, they found it impossible to pay the government’s revenue demand. And the
refusal of the government to reduce the revenue demand led to widespread resentment.
These rich peasants became enthusiastic supporters of the Civil Disobedience Movement,
organising their communities, and at times forcing reluctant members, to participate in
the boycott programmes. For them the fight for swaraj was a struggle against high
3 SS-Ch-2A
 revenues. But they were deeply disappointed when the movement was called off in 1931
without the revenue rates being revised. So, when the movement was restarted in 1932,
many of them refused to participate.

The poorer peasantry were not just interested in the lowering of the revenue demand.
Many of them were small tenants cultivating land they had rented from landlords. As the
Depression continued and cash incomes dwindled, the small tenants found it difficult to
pay their rent. They wanted the unpaid rent to the landlord to be remitted. They joined a
variety of radical movements, often led by Socialists and Communists. Apprehensive of
raising issues that might upset the rich peasants and landlords, the Congress was unwilling
to support ‘no rent’ campaigns in most places. So, the relationship between the poor
peasants and the Congress remained uncertain.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

i) When the movement restarted who refused to participate? 1

ii) Who led the Peasant’s Movement in Awadh? 1

iii) For plantation workers in Assam, which Act did not permit them to leave the tea gardens
without permission? 1

iv) Why Congress was unwilling to support rent campaigns in most places? 2
17. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.
Mahatma Gandhi’s letter was, in a way, an ultimatum. If the demands were not fulfilled by
11 March, the letter stated, the Congress would launch a civil disobedience campaign.
Irwin was unwilling to negotiate. So Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march
accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from
Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi.

In December 1931, Gandhiji went to London for the conference, but the negotiations broke
down and he returned disappointed. Back in India, he discovered that the government
had begun a new cycle of repression. Ghaffar Khan and Jawaharlal Nehru were both in
jail, the Congress had been declared illegal, and a series of measures had been imposed
to prevent meetings, demonstrations and boycotts. With great apprehension, Mahatma
Gandhi relaunched the Civil Disobedience Movement. For over a year, the movement
continued, but by 1934 it lost its momentum.

i) What marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement? 2

ii) Why did Gandhiji go to London? 2

iii) What was the Gandhi-Irwin pact? 1

18. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.

This sense of collective belonging came partly through the experience of united struggles.
But their were also a variety of cultural processes through which nationalism captured
people’s imagination. History and fiction, folklore and songs, popular prints and symbols,
all played part in the making of nationalism. The identity of the nation is most often
4 SS-Ch-2A
 symbolize in a figure or image. This helps create an image with which people can identify
the nation. It was in the twentieth century, with the growth of nationalism, that the identity
of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata.

The image was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. In the 1870s he wrote
‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to them other land. Later it was included in his novel
Anandamath and widely sung during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal. Moved by the
Swadeshi movement, Abanindranath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata. In
this painting Bharat Mata is portrayed as an ascetic figure; she is calm, composed, divine
and spiritual. In subsequent years, the image of Bharat Mata acquired many different
forms, as it circulated in popular prints, and was painted by different artists. Devotion to
this mother figure came to be seen as evidence of one’s nationalism.

Which of the following statement is not correct about the image of Bharat Mata? 1

a) The image was drawn by several artists at different times

b) Bharat Mata carries same symbols in all images

c) French and German allegories inspired to draw the image of Bharat Mata

d) Different artists uses different symbols to show collective belongings

SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

19. What was Gandhiji’s idea behind launching it as stated in his book Hind Swaraj? 3

20. Describe the participation of different social groups in the civil disobedience movement.
3

21. Describe the civil disobedience movement. How did it become a mass movement? 5

OR

Why did Gandhiji call off civil disobedience movement?

22. The places A, B, and C have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify
them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 3

a) Indian National Congress session at this place in 1927.

b) Congress session at this place in september 1920.

c) Sathyagraha Movement at this place for indigo planters.

5 SS-Ch-2A
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

NATIONALISM IN INDIA Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. Which pact resolved the issue of separate electorates for dalits between Gandhiji and Dr.
Ambedkar in 1932?

a) Lucknow pact b) Nagpur pact

d) Poona pact d) Surat pact

2. Which famous writer from Bengal led the movement for folklore as part of Nationalism?

a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhya b) Ababibdranath Tagore

c) Rabindranath Tagore d) Ravi Verma

3. Who announced a vague offer of “Dominion Status” for India in 1929?

a) Lord Curzon b) Viceroy Irwin
c) Lord William Bentinck d) Lord Mountbatten

4. Fill in the blanks

In ................. movement, women participated in large numbers for the first time.

OR

The famous book of Gandhiji (1909) is .................

5. Match the column A with column B and select the correct answer.

Column I Column II

i) Depressed Casse Association a) G.D. Birla

ii) Nationalist in Gudem Hills b) C.R. Das

iii) Indian Industrialist c) Alluri Sita Ram Raju

iv) Swaraj Party d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

6. Why were Dalits ignored by the Congress for the long time?

OR

How Simon Commission was greeted in India?

7. Why was the Non-cooperation movement called off by Gandhiji?

a) Pressure from the British Government

b) Because Muslims did not participate in the movement

6
 c) Gandhiji’s arrest

d) Due to Chauri-Chaura incident

8. Which one of the following is not true regarding the Khilafat Movement?

a) It aimed at bringing the Hindus and Muslims together in the Non-cooperation Movement

b) It aimed at defending the Ottoman emperors temporal powers

c) Mahammad Ali and Shaukat Ali led the movement in India

d) It resulted in the restoration of the power of the Khalifa of Turkey

SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS

9. Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj party from the options
given below. 1

a) Wanted members of Congress to return to council politics

b) Wanted members of Congress to ask for Purna Swaraj for Indians

c) Wanted members of Congress to ask dominion Status for India

d) Wanted members of Congress to oppose Simon Commission

10. Analyse the information given below considering one of the following correct
options. 1

As the national movement developed, nationalist leaders became more and more aware
of such icons and symbols in unifying people and inspiring in them a feeling of nationalism.
During the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow) was
designed. It had eight lotuses representing eight provinces of British India, and a crescent
moon, representing Hindus and Muslims. By 1921, Gandhiji had designed the Swaraj
flag. It was again a tricolour (red, green and white) and had a spinning wheel in the centre,
representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help. Carrying the flag, holding it aloft during
marches became a symbol of defiance.

a) Designing of icons b) Designing of tricolour flag

c) Designing of national symbols d) Designing of images

OR

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct
options.

Some of the Muslim political organisations in India were also lukewarm in their response
to the Civil Disobedience Movement. After the decline of the Non-Cooperation Khilafat
movement, a large section of Muslims felt alienated from the Congress. From the mid-
1920s the Congress came to be more visibly associated with openly Hindu religious
nationalist groups like the Hindu Mahasabha. As relations between Hindus and Muslims
worsened, each community organised religious processions with militant fervour, provoking
Hindu-Muslim communal clashes and riots in various cities. Every riot deepened the

7 SS-Ch-2B
 distance between the two communities. The Congress and the Muslim League made
efforts to renegotiate an alliance, and in 1927 it appeared that such a unity could be forged.

Why did Muslims feel alienated from the Congress after the Non-Cooperation Khilafat
Movement?

I. The Congress came to be more visibly associated with openly Hindu religious
nationalist groups.

II. There was thus an atmosphere of suspicion and distrust between the two communities.

III. The Congress and the Muslim League made efforts to renegotiate an alliance.

IV. Each community organised religious processions with militant fervour.

a) Only I b) I, II & III c) I & II d) I, II & IV 1

11. Arrange the following in the correct sequence. 1

i) Formation of the Muslim League. ii) The First World War.

iii) The first meeting of the Indian National Congress in Bombay.

iv) The war prices increased in double.

a) ii - iv - iii - i b) i - iii - iv - ii c) iv - ii - i - iii d) iii - i - ii - iv

Question 12 - 15, Assertion Reason Type questions

In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.

12. Assertion (A) : Mahatma Gandhiji found salt a powerful symbol that could unite the
nation. 1

Reason (R) : Salt was something essential, consumed by the rich and the poor alike.

13. Assertion (A) : In 1919, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch a nationwide Satyagraha
against the proposed Rowlatt Act.

Reason (R) : The Act was passed to repress political activities. 1

14. Assertion (A) : Foreign goods were boycotted liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth
burnt in huge bonfires.

Reason (R) : Students and teachers began trickling back to government schools and
lawyers joined back work in government courts. 1

15. Assertion (A) : In 1917, Gandhiji organized a Satyagraha to support the peasants of
the Kheda district of Gujarat.

8 SS-Ch-2B
 Reason (R) : The peasants were affected by crop failure and plague epidemic. They
could not pay the revenue and were demanding the revenue collection
be relaxed. 1
16. Consider the following statements and find the incorrect from the given options
i) Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutta threw a bomb in the Central Legislative
Assembly.
ii) Hindustan Socialist Republican Army was based on the principles given by Mahatma
Gandhiji.
iii) Bhagat Singh wanted a revolution in the society.
a) only i b) only ii c) only iii d) Both ii and iii 1

17. Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow.

The idea of satyagraha emphasised the power of truth and the need to search for truth. It
suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice, then physical
force was not necessary to fight the oppressor. Without seeking vengeance or being
aggressive, a satyagrahi could win the battle through nonviolence. This could be done by
appealing to the conscience the oppressor. People - including the oppressors - had to be
persuaded to see the truth instead of being forced to accept truth through the use of
violence. By this struggle, truth was bound to ultimately triumph. Mahatma Gandhi believed
that this dharma of non-violence could unite all Indians. After arriving in India. Mahatma
Gandhiji successfully organised satyagraha movements in various places. In 1916 he
travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive
plantation system. Then in 1917, he organised a satyagraha to support the peasants of
the Kheda district of Guijarat. Affected by crop failure and a plague epidemic, the peasants
of Kheda could not pay the revenue, and were demanding that revenue collection be
relaxed. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhij went to Ahmedabad to organise a satyagraha movement
amongst cotton mill workers.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

i) What does the idea of a satyagrah emphasis on?

a) Power of truth b) Violence

c) Khilafat movement d) Disobedience 1

ii) Why did Gandhiji travel to Chamaparan? 1

a) to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.

b) to inspire the peasants to make salt and break the salt law.

c) to inspire people to start using Khadi

d) all the above

iii) In 1916, Gandhiji travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle.
a) Upper caste people b) Landless agricultural labourers

c) Oppressive plantation system d) None of these 1

9 SS-Ch-2B
 iv) What was the belief of Gandhiji regarding Dharma? 1
a) that violence will unite Indians
b) that violence will help in Indian National Movement
c) that non-violence will help Indians to unite
d) none of the above
18. Read the source given below and answer the question that follows.
The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of students
left government controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned
and lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most
provinces except Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt
that entering the council was one way of gaining some power-something that usually only
Brahmans had access to. The effects of non-cooperation on the economic front were
more dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted. The import of foreign clothes halved
between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from 102 crore. In many places, merchants
and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the boycott
movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian
ones. production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.
i) Explain the role of ‘Justice Party in boycotting of Councilections’ 2
ii) How was the effect of ‘non-cooperation on the economic front dramatic’? 1
iii) Explain the effect of ‘Boycott Movement on foreign textile trade’. 2
SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
19. How was civil disobedience movement different from the non-cooperation movement?3
20. Describe the participation of women in the civil disobedience movement. Why did the
participation of women in large numbers in the movement not bring any radical change in
the position of Indian women? 3
OR
“Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same
nation”. Support the statement.
21. Discuss the significance of the congress session in 1929 in the freedom struggle of India.
5
OR
Why did Gandhiji considered salt as a powerful symbol of national movement against the
British?
22. The places D, E, and F have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify
them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 3
a) Congress session December 1920.
b) Salt to launch Civil Disobedience Movement.

c) Cotton mill workers satyagraha.

10 SS-Ch-2B
 F

D
E C

•
• B

•
• • A

10 SS-Ch-2
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

PRINT CULTURE AND THE MODERN WORLD Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Who published the Sambad Kaumudi from 1821?

a) Raja Rammohan Roy b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

c) Raja Ravi Verma d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

2. Which of the following sought to teach women how to be obedient wives?

a) Ramacharitmanas b) Istri Dharm Vichar

c) Pride and Prejudice d) Jane Eyre

3. Study the picture and answer the question that follows.

Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of ‘Ghor Kali’?

a) Traditional family roles

b) Destruction of proper family relations

c) Cultural impact of the West

d) None of the above

4. Match the following.

Column A Column B
i. Johann Gutenberg a. Sambad Kaumudi
ii. Martin Luther b. Printing Press
iii. Lord Lytton c. Ninety Five Theses
iv. Raja Rammohan Roy d. Vernacular Press Act
a) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a b) i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c
c) i - b, ii - c, iii - a, iv - d d) i - c, ii - b, iii - d, iv - a
5. Arrange the following in chronological order.

i) The Vernacular Press Act was passed in India.

ii) Religious reformer martin Luther printed ‘Ninety Five Theses’.

iii) Johann Gutenberg invented the printing press.

1
 iv) The Roman Church began maintaining an index of prohibited books.

a) iv - ii - iii - i b) ii - iv - i - iii c) iii - iv - i - ii d) iii - ii - iv - i

6. Read the information given below and select the correct option.

India had a very rich and old tradition of handwritten manuscripts - in Sanskrit, Arabic,
Persian, as well as in various vernacular languages. Manuscripts were copied on palm
leaves or on handmade paper. Pages were sometimes beautifully illustrated. They would
be either pressed between wooden covers or sewn together to ensure preservation.
Manuscripts continued to be produced till well after the introduction of print, down to the
late nineteenth century.

a) Different types of manuscripts b) What is manuscripts?

c) Indian manuscripts d) Manuscripts before age of print

7. Which one of the following was NOT the reason for the popularity of scientific ideas among
the common people in eighteenth century Europe?

a) Printing of ideas of Isaac Newton b) Development of printing press

c) Interest of people in science and reason

d) Traditional aristocratic groups supported it

8. Identify the incorrect one from the following.

a) By the seventeenth century, as urban culture bloomed in China, the use of print
diversified.

b) Print was no longer used just by scholar-officials.

c) Merchants used print in their everyday life, as they collected trade information.

d) Trading increasingly became a leisure activity.

9. Read the following statements, choose correct option.

Assertion (A) : It is easy for us to image a world without printed matter.

Reason (R) : We find evidence of the print everywhere around us - in books, journals,
newspapers, printers of famous paintings and also in everyday things
like theatre programmes, official circulars, calendars, diaries,
advertisements, cinema posters at street corners.

a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

2 SS-Ch-Print Culture ...... A

 SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. Suggest any two features of hand written manuscripts before the age of print in India?

11. Explain any two factors responsible for the invention of New Printing Techniques.

OR

Mention any two limitations of manuscript.

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3×3=9

12. How had the printing press created a new culture of reading in Europe?

13. How had the earliest printing technology developed in the world? Explain with examples.

OR

Who was Menocchio? Mention any two contributions of him in the field of Print Culture in the
sixteenth century.

14. How had Novels been easily available to the masses in Europe during nineteenth century?
Explain with examples.

SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

15. Describe the impact of the Print Revolution in Europe during 15th and 16th century.

16. “Print not only stimulated the publication of conflicting opinions amongst communities, but it
also connected communities and people in different parts of India”. Examine the statement.

OR

‘Printing technology gave women a chance to share their feelings with the world outside’.
Support the statement with any five suitable examples.

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Print created the possibility of wide circulation of ideas, and introduced a new world of
debate and discussion. Even those who disagreed with established authorities could now
print and circulate their ideas. Through the printed message, they could persuade people
to think differently, and move them to action. This had significance in different spheres of
life.

“The implication of this in one sphere of life in early modern Europe - namely, religion. In
1517, the religious reformer Martin Luther wrote Ninety Five These criticising many of the
practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church”.

i) Why was print not welcomed by everyone? 2

ii) Who was Martin Luther? What did he say about ‘printing’? 1

iii) What do you mean by ‘protestant reformation’? 1

3 SS-Ch-Print Culture ...... A
18. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

The nineteenth century saw vast leaps in mass literacy in Europe, bringing in large
numbers of new readers among children, women and workers.

As primary education became compulsory from the late nineteenth century, children
became an important category of readers. Production of school textbooks became critical
for the publishing industry. A children’s press, devoted to literature for children alone, was
set up in France in 1857.

This press published new works as well as old fairy tales and folk tales. The Grimm
Brothers in Germany spent years compiling traditional folk tales gathered from peasants.

i) Describe the role of Grimm brothers in the field of print for children. 2

ii) Name any two women novelist of the nineteenth century Europe. 1

iii) Who perfected the power-driven cylindrical press? 1

4 SS-Ch-Print Culture ...... A

 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

PRINT CULTURE AND THE MODERN WORLD Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Which of the following book provides glimpses of struggles of the poor to read?

a) The Social Contract b) My Childhood

c) Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal d) Sacchi Kavitayan

2. First weekly paper published in India.

a) Bengal Gazette b) Samachar Chandrika

c) Bombay Samachar d) Shamsul Akhbar

3. Study the picture and answer the question that follows.

Who printed this famous image of Raja Ritudhwaj and Princess Madalsa?

a) Rabindranath Tagore

b) Raja Rammohan Roy

c) K.T. Ranade

d) Raja Ravi Varma

4. Match the following.

Column A Column B
a. Rashsundari Debi Chhote Aur Bade ka Sawal

b. Sudarshan Chakra Kesari

c. Kashibaba Amar Jiban

d. Bal Gangadhar Tilak Sacchi Kavitayen

a) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b b) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

c) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a d) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a

5. Arrange the following in chronological order.

i) Hand printing technology was introduced in Japan.

ii) Paper reached Europe from China.

iii) Books in China were printed by rubbing paper against the inked surface of woodblocks.
5
 iv) The first Japanese book, “The Diamond Sutra’ was printed.

a) i - ii - iii - iv b) iii - i - iv - ii c) iv - iii - ii - i d) ii - i - iii - iv

6. Read the information given below and select the correct option.

Through the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, literacy rates went up in most parts of
Europe. Churches of different denominations set up schools in villages, carrying literacy
to Peasants and artisans. By the end of the eighteenth century in some parts of Europe
literacy rates were as high as 60 to 80 percent. As literacy and schools spread in European
countries, there was a virtual reading mania. People wanted to read books and printers
produced books in ever increasing numbers.

a) Literacy rate in Europe b) Reading mania

c) Literacy increase in world d) Increase in demand of books

7. Why was reading of manuscripts not easy in India? Choose the appropriate reason from
the following options.

a) Manuscripts were highly expensive b) Manuscripts were widely spread out

c) Manuscripts were written in English and Hindi

d) Manuscripts were fragile.

8. Identify the incorrect one from the following.

a) Gutenberg was the son of a goldsmith.

b) He grew on a large agricultural estate.

c) From his childhood, he had seen wine and olive presses.

d) Subsequently, he learnt the art of polishing stones and became a master goldsmith.

9. Read the following statements, choose correct option.

Assertion (A) : Women became important readers as well as writers.

Reason (R) : Penny magazines were especially meant for women, as were manuals
teaching proper behaviour and housekeeping

a) Both )A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong. d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. Why were women not educated in India in the early part of the nineteenth century? Give
any two reasons.

11. Why did British Government curb the freedom of the Indian press after the revolt of
1857?
6 SS-Ch-Print Culture ...... B
 OR

In which two ways did the printed books at first closely resembled the written manuscripts?

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3×3=9

12. “The ‘Print Revolution’ had transformed the lives of people changing their relationship to
information and knowledge”. Analyse the statement.

13. Why was Vernacular Press Act passed? Explain about this Act.

OR

“Print created the possibility of wide circulation of ideas and introduced a new world of debate
and discussion”. Analyse the statement in the context of religion in Europe.

14. How had the imperial State in China been the major producer of printed material for a long
time? Explain with examples.

SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

15. Explain with examples how print culture catered to the requirement of children.

16. Explain briefly the initial efforts made by foreigners to introduce printing press in India.

OR

‘The imperial state of China was the major producer of printed material’. Support this statement.

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

But not families were liberal. Conservative Hindus believed that a literate girl would be
widowed and Muslims feared that educated women would be corrupted by reading Urdu
romances. Sometimes, rebel women defied such prohibition. We know the story of a girl
in a conservative Muslim family of north India who secretly learnt to read and write in
Urdu. Her family wanted her to read only the Arabic Quran which she did not understand.
So she insisted on learning to read a language that was her own. In East Bengal, in the
early nineteenth century, Rashsundari Debi, a young married girl in a very orthodox
household, learnt to read in the secrecy of her kitchen. Later, she wrote her autobiography
Amar Jiban which was published in 1876. It was the first full-length autobiography published
in the Bengali language.

i) Name the women writer who learnt to read and write in the secrecy of her kitchen.1

ii) Describe the plight of women highlighted by Kailashbashini Debi. 2

iii) Name two Maharashtrian women writers who highlighted the miserable lives of upper-
caste Hindu women, especially widows. 1

7 SS-Ch-Print Culture ...... B

18. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

For centuries, silk and spices from China flowed into Europe through the silk route. In the
eleventh century, Chinese paper reached Europe via the same route. Paper made possible
the production of manuscripts, carefully written by scribes. Then in 1295, Marco Polo, a
great explorer, returned to Italy after many years of exploration in China. As you read
above, China already had the technology of woodblock printing. Marco Polo brought this
knowledge back with him. Now Italians began producing books with woodblocks, and
soon the technology spread to other parts of Europe. Luxury editions were still handwritten
on very expensive vellum, meant for aristocratic circles and rich monastic libraries which
scoffed at printed books as cheap vulgarities. Merchants and students in the university
towns bought the cheaper printed copies.

But the production of handwritten manuscripts could not satisfy the ever-increasing demand
for books.

i) Who brought the technology of woodblock printing to Europe from China? 1

ii) What is Vellum? What was its use in Europe? 1

iii) What were the limitations of manuscripts? 2

8 SS-Ch-Print Culture ...... B

 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

THE MAKING OF A GLOBAL WORLD Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Which one of the following were considered as Axis Power?

a) Britain, France and the US b) Nazi, Germany, Japan and Italy
c) Japan, Italy and France d) Nazi, Germany, France and Britain
2. Name the law which allowed the British Government to restrict the import of corn.
a) Corn Act b) Food Act
c) Corn Laws d) None of the above
3. The Bretton Woods Monetary System was based on .............
a) Floating exchange rates b) Fixed exchange rates
c) Both floating as well as fixed rates d) None of the above
4. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B.

Column A Column B

i) Detrproit a) Africa

ii) Rinderpest b) Corn laws

iii) Britain c) Small pox

iv) America d) Car plant

a) i - d, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d b) i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c

c) i - b, ii - a, iii - c, iv - d d) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d
5. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:
Which of the following aspects best signifies this image of ship “Alexandra”?

a) Irish emigrants waiting to board the ship

b) Meat being loaded on the ship

c) Emigrants leaving for the US

d) Transport to the gold mines

6. Which of the following is not true with reference to Corn laws?

a) The laws were abolished in the late 18th century.

b) After the Corn Laws were scrapped, food could be imported into Britain more cheaply.

1
 c) The abolition of Corn Law promoted agriculture in Britian.

d) The abolition of Corn Law led to the migration of people.

7. Read the following statements, choose correct option.

Assertion (A) : During Great depression most part of the world experienced catastrophic
decline in production, employment, income and trade.

Reason (R) : The Great depression began in 1919 and remained for 11 years.

a) Only A is true. b) Only R is false.

c) Both A and R are correct explanation of A.

d) Both A and R correct and R is not correct explanation of A.

8. Read the information given below and select the following correct options.

Consider the jute producers of Bengal. They grew raw jute that was processed in factories
for export in the form of gunny bags. But as gunny exports collapsed, the price of raw jute
crashed more than 60 percent. Peasants who borrowed in the hope of better times or to
increase output in the hope of higher incomes faced ever lower prices, and fell deeper
and deeper into debt. Thus the Bengal jute growers’ lament.

Grow more jute, brothers, with the hope of greater cash. Costs and debts of jute will
make your hopes get dashed. When you have spent all your money and got the crop off
the ground..... traders, sitting at home, will pay only Rs. 5 amount.

a) The Great Depression b) India and the Great Depression

c) Post-War Recovery d) Rise of mass Production and Consumption

9. Arrange the following in the correct sequence.

i) The Second World War ii) The Great Depression

iii) The Chinese Revolution

iv) The IMF and the World Bank commenced financial operations

a) i - iii - iv - ii b) iii - iv - ii - i c) iv - ii - i - iii d) ii - i - iv - iii

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. What was the role of the recruiting agents in exploiting the indentured workers?
OR
What are floating exchange rates?

11. Why did big European powers meet in Berlin in 1885?

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3×3=9

12. How the global transfer of disease in the pre-modern period helped in the colonisation of the
America? Explain.
2 SS-Ch-The making..... A
13. What was the importance of the Indian trade for the British? 3

OR

Describe any three problems faced by Indian cotton weavers in the nineteenth century.

14. The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between
distant parts of the world. Explain.

SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

15. Explain the effects of First World War on Britain.

OR

What were the effects of the Great Depression on the Indian economy?

16. The First World War has affected the economy and general life of the world. Explain how?

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Nineteenth-century indenture has been described as a ‘new system of slavery’. On arrival

at the plantations, labourers found conditions to be different from what they had imagined.
Living and working conditions were harsh, and there were few legal rights.

i) What were the main destinations of Indian indentured migrants? 1

ii) How were the Indentured labours recruited by the agents of the employers? 2

iii) Why was 19th century indenture described as a ‘new system of slavery’? 1

18. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

The First World War (1914-18) was mainly fought in Europe. But its impact was felt around
the world. It plunged the first half of the twentieth century into a crisis that took over three
decades to overcome. During this period the world experienced widespread economic
and political instability, and another catastrophic war.

i) What was the First World War fought? 1

ii) Why was the First World War the first modern industrial war? 2

iii) Name the two power blocs along with their allies who fought the First World War. 1

3 SS-Ch-The making..... A
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

THE MAKING OF A GLOBAL WORLD Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Which among the following were considered as allied power?

a) Britain, France and Russia b) Britain, Japan and Russia
c) Germany, Austria - Hungary and Ottomon Turk
d) Germany, France and Japan
2. The routes which knitted together vast regions of Asia and linked Asia with Europe and
Northern Africa.
a) Golden Route b) Silk Route
c) Diamond Route d) None of the above
3. During the First World War, Britain borrowed large sums of money from ..............
a) Germany b) Russia
c) United States of America d) France
4. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B.

Column A Column B

i) Cowries a) Arab traders

ii) Spabetti b) Chinese

iii) Puffery c) Italian

iv) Pasta d) Indian

a) i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b b) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

c) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c d) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
5. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following options best signifies the picture?

a) A distant view of Surat and its river

b) New Orleans

c) Transvaal Gold Mines

d) Stalingrad in Soviet Russia

5
6. Read the following statements, choose correct option.

Assertion (A) : As International prices crashed. Between 1928 to 1934 wheat prices in
India fell by 50 percent.
Reason (R) : The depression immediately affected Indian trade. India’s export and
import nearly halved between 1928 to 1934.
a) Only A is true. b) Only R is false.
c) Both A and R are correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R correct and R is not correct explanation of A.
7. Read the information given below and select the following correct options.
The Silk Routes are a good example vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between
distant parts of the world. The name ‘Silk Routes’ points to the importance of West-bound
Chinese silk cargoes along this route. Historians have identified several silk routes, over
land and by sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and linking Asia with Europe and
northern Africa. They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and thrived
almost till the fifteenth century. But Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did
textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious metals - gold and
silver - flowed from Europe to Asia.
Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early Christian missionaries
almost certainly travelled this route to Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries
later. Much before all this, Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several
directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.
a) Pre-modern Trade and cultural links b) Trade and cultural exchange
c) Silk Routes link the world d) Chinese Silk cargoes
8. Arrange the following in the correct sequence.
i) Indentured Labour was abolished
ii) Rinderpest (Cattle Plague) had a terrifying impact on livelihoods of the African people
and the local economy.
iii) The First World War was fought.
iv) Potato Famine in Ireland.
a) iv - ii - iii - i b) iii - i - ii - iv c) i - iv - iii - ii d) ii - iii - iv - i
9. Economists of the 19th century identify three types of movements or flows within
international exchanges”. Which of the following is not a part of the flow?
a) the flow of trade b) The flow of technology
c) The flow of labour d) The flow of capital

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. What enhanced Europe’s wealth for trade in Asia?
OR
6 SS-Ch-The making..... B
 During the Great Depression, why was the agricultural sector worst affected?
11. Which important inventions transformed 19th century world?
SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3×3=9
12. What were the causes of the new system of Slavery?
13. Explain how the First World War was so horrible a war like none other before.
OR
What were the effects of the British Government's decision to abolish the Corn Laws?
14. Explane the impact of the discovery of the sea route to American by Christopher Columbus
on the rest of the world.

SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

15. The Spanish conquest and colonization of America was decisively underway by the mid sixteenth
century. Explain with examples.
OR
Explain giving examples, the role played by technological inventions in transforming 19th century
world.

16. What were the methods used by the European Employers in Africa to recruit and retain Labour?
SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Despite years of stable and rapid growth, not all was well in this post-war world. From the
1960s the rising costs of its overseas involvements weakened the US’s finances and
competitive strength. The US dollar now no longer commanded confidence as the world’s
principal currency. It could not maintain its value in relation to gold. This eventually led to
the collapse of the system of fixed exchange rates and the introduction of a system of
floating exchange rates.

i) What do you mean by ‘Exchange Rate’? 1

ii) Explain ‘Fixed Exchange Rate’? 1

iii) What lead to the introduction of Floating Exchange Rates? 2

18. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

The First World War (1914-18) was mainly fought in Europe. But its impact was felt around
the world. Notably for our concerns in this chapter, it plunged the first half of the twentieth
century into a crisis that took over three decades to overcome. During this period the
world experienced widespread economic and political instability, and another catastrophic
war.
i) What was the First World War fought? 1
ii) Why was the First World War the first modern industrial war? 2
iii) Name the two power blocs along with their allies who fought the First World War. 1
7 SS-Ch-The making..... B
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

RESOURCE AND DEVELOPMENT Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. Name the piedmont plains where alluvial soils is commonly found in India.

a) Bangar b) Mahanadi plains

c) Duars, Chos and Terai d) None of the above

2. Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but human
beings do not have appropriate technology to access them are called.

a) Potential resource b) Stock

c) Developed resource d) Reserves

3. Which one of the following methods does not help in soil conservation?

a) Contour plugging b) Strip cropping

c) Creating shelter belts d) Ploughing up and down the slopes

4. Fill in the blanks

Resources that take long geological time for their formation are called .............

OR

Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as ..............

5. Match the following

Column A Column B

A) Shelter belts i) Deep channels

B) Bad land ii) Planting line of trees to create shelter

C) Sheet erosion iii) Land unfit for cultivation

D) Gullies iv) Water flows as a sheet over large areas

a) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i b) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv

c) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv d) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii

6. Read the following features of a soil and name the related soil.

a) Red to brown in colour b) Sandy in texture and Salint in nature

c) Lacks humus and moisture

d) The bottom layer of kankar restricts the infiltration of water

1
7. Study the following pie diagram and answer the following.

What percentage increase is seen in area under forest in the year 2014-15 from base
year 1960 - 61? 1

a) 5.19 b) 3 c) 4.1 d) 5.16

8. How does mineral processing degrades the land? 1

OR

What were the main causes for colonisation of the countries of Asia and Africa by foreign
invaders?

SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS

Assertion Reason Type questions

In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is wrong.
d) A is wrong but R is true.
9. Assertion (A) : Terrace cultivation does not restrict erosion.
Reason (R) : Running water cuts through the clayed soils and makes deep channels
as gullies. This helps to cultivate crops. 1
10. Assertion (A) : Arid soil is unsuitable for cultivation.
Reason (R) : Arid soil is generally sandy in texture and saline in nature. It restricts
the filtration of water. 1
11. Assertion (A) : Exhaustion of petrol will create huge chaos in the country as we are
extensively dependent on the petrol.
Reason (R) : Most of the resources present in our environment are limited. 1
2 SS-Ch-3A
12. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows.
This is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are
made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river
systems-the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend in Tajesthan
and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal
plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri
rivers.
The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. As we move inlands
towards the river valley ie. near the place of the break of slope, the soils are coarse. Such
soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai.
Apart from the size of their grains or components, soils are also described on the basis of
their age. According to their age alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar)
than the Khadar. It has more fine particles and is more fertile than the bangar.
Alluvial soils as a whole are very fertile. Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of
potash, phosphoric acid and lime which are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy,
wheat and other cereal and pulse crops . Due to its high fertility, regions of alluvial soils
are intensively cultivated and densely populated. Soils in the drier areas are more alkaline
and can be productive after proper treatment and irrigation.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate options.
i) Which is the most widely spread and important soil? 4×1=4
a) Alluvial soil b) Laterite soil
c) Arid soil d) Red and yellow soils
ii) Alluvial soil is found in the ..................
a) Western Coastal Plains b) North Coastal Plains
c) Eastern Coastal Plains d) None of these
iii) Soils are described on the basis of their
a) forms b) age c) king d) treatment
iv) Soils in the dry areas are more alkaline and can be productive after proper ...........
and ...............
a) Pericles, fertile b) Growth, size
c) Treatment, irrigation d) None of these
13. Read the passage and answer the questions that follows.
We leave on land, we perform our economic activities on land and we use it in different
ways. Thus, land is a natural resource of utmost importance. It supports natural vegetation,
wild life, human life, economic activities, transport and communication systems. However,
land is an asset of a finite magnitude, therefore, it is important to use the available land for
various purposes with careful planning.
Soil is the most important renewable natural resource. it is the medium of plant growth
and supports different types of living organisms on the earth. This soil is a living system.

3 SS-Ch-3A
 It takes millions of years to form soil upto a few cm in depth. Relief, parent rock or bed
rock, climate, vegetation and other forms of life and time are important factors in the
formation of soil. Various forces of nature such as change in temperature, actions of
running water, wind and glaciers, activities of decomposers etc. contribute to the formation
of soil.
i) Why is it important to use the land with careful planning? 2
ii) What factors help in the formation of soil? 2
iii) Name the two major soil types found in India. 1
14. Read the following statement and choose the correct option.
Statement 1. Potential resources are the subset of the stock, which can be put into
use with the help of existing technical ‘know-how’ but their use has not
been started.
Statement 2. Potential resources are type of natural resource that exist in a region and
may be used in the future.
a) Only Statement 1 is true b) Only Statement 2 is true
c) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
d) Statement 2 is true but Statement 1 is false
OR
Read the following statement and choose the correct option.
Statement 1. Ninety -five percent of our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are
obtained from land.
Statement 2. Land is an utmost important natural resources supporting vegetation,
wild life, human life, etc.
a) Only Statement 1 is true b) Only Statement 2 is true
c) Both Statement I and Statement 2 are true
d) Both Statement I and Statement 2 are False
15. In the upper and Middle Ganga plain, two different types of alluvial soils have developed,
viz, Khadar and Bhangar. Consider the following statements about these soil types and
choose the correct ones. 1
i) Khadar is the new alluvium while Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium.
ii) Khadar soil contains calcareous concretions while Bhangar soil completely lacks it.
iii) The sand content in these soil decreases from west to east.
a) i, ii and iii b) i and ii c) ii and iii d) i and iii
16. Analyse the information given below. Choose one of the following correct options.
These are also owned privately by individuals. Many farmers own land which is allotted to
them by government against the payment of revenue. In villages there are people with
land ownership but there are many who are landless. Urban people own plots, houses
and other property. Plantation, pasture lands, ponds, water in wells etc. are some of the
examples of resources ownership by individuals. Make a list of resources owned by your
household.
4
SS-Ch-3A
 a) Individual resources b) Community owned resources
c) National resources d) International resources 1
17. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.
Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of life. It was
believed that resources are free gifts of nature. As a result, human beings used them
indiscriminately and this has led to the following major problems.
1. Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of a few individuals.
2. Accumulations of resources in few hands, which in turn, divided the society into two
segments ie. haves and have nots or rich and poor.
3. Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crises such as,
global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution and land degradation.
Why are resources vital? 1
a) Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of life.
b) Resources are vital for economy as well as for maintaining the quality of life.
c) Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining a poor quality of life.
d) Resources are vital for animal survival as well as for maintaining the quality of life.
18. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.
Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crises such as, global
warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution and land degradation.
An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained quality of life
and global peace. If the present trend of resource depletion by a few individuals and
countries continues, the future of our planet is in danger.
Therefore, resource planning is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life.
Sustainable existence is a component of sustainable development.
Which of the following crisis occurs due to exploitation of resources?
a) global warming b) aforestation c) soil conservation d) all of these

SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

19. How is the issue of sustainiability important for development? Explain with examples. 3
20. Provide a suitable classificaiton of resources on the basis of ownership. Mention main
features of any three types of such resources. 5
OR
Describe any five distinct characteristics of ‘Arid Soils’.
21. How much land is degraded in India at present ? Explain any four human activities which
are mainly responsible for land degradation in India. 5
OR
What is the need for conservaiton of resources? Elucidate in the light of Gandhi’s view.
22. Identify the major soil types marked on the given map of India (A, B, C).

5 SS-Ch-3A
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

RESOURCE AND DEVELOPMENT Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Laterite soil is very useful for growing

a) Tea, Coffee and cashew nut b) Rice, Wheat and mustard

d) Pulses, sugar cane and Maze d) None of the above

2. Which of the following is not a measure for soil conservation?

a) Strip cropping b) Terrace cultivation

c) Shelter belts d) Overdrawing of ground water

3. Plugging along the contour lines to decelerate the flow of water down the slopes is called
a) Strip cropping b) Sheet erosion
c) Counter plugging d) Terrace cultivation

4. Fill in the blanks

Land that is left uncultivated for more than five agricultural year is called ...............

OR

The area covering states like Uttar Pradesh & Bihar is the ................ soil type.

5. Match the following.

Column A Column B

i) Primitive subsistence farming a) Labour intensive

ii) Commercial farming b) An example of commercial farming

iii) Intensive subsistence farming c) Slash and burn agriculture

iv) Plantation Cultivation d) High doses of modern inputs

a) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i b) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv

c) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv d) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii

6. Read the following features of a soil and name the related soil.

a) Develops in high rainfall area b) Intense teaching process takes place

c) Humus content is law

d) After adopting appropriate soil conservative techniques, particularly in the hilly areas
Karnataka.

6
7. Interpret the following pie diagram and answer the following question.

Which is the significance of 43 percent land under plains?

a) It provides facilities for agriculture and industry

b) It provides facilities for tourism

c) It ensures perennial flow of some river

d) It possesses rich reserves of minerals, fossil fuels and forests

8. What does the process of transformation of things in nature involve?

OR

Name the natural forces which lead to soil erosion.

SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS

Assertion Reason Type questions

In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : Soil erosion is caused by running water / wind.

Reason (R) : Water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. Running water
cuts through the clayed soils and makes deep channels as gullies. 1
10. Assertion (A) : The availability of resources is not the only necessary condition for
the development of any region.
Reason (R) : Not only availability of resources but also corresponding change in
technology is necessary for development of any region. 1
11. Assertion (A) : In India, some regions are rich in certain types of resources but deficient
in some other resources.
Reason (R) : Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in
infrastructural development. 1

7 SS-Ch-3B
12. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
Individual Resources are owned privately by individuals. Many farmers own land which is
allotted to them by government against the payment of revenue. In villages there are
people with land ownership but there are many who are landless. Urban people own plots,
houses and other property. Plantation, pasture lands, ponds, water in wells etc., are some
of the examples of resources ownership by individuals.
Community Owned Resources are resources which are accessible to all the members
of the community. Village commons (grazing ground, burial grounds, village ponds, etc.)
public parks, picnic sports, playgrounds in urban areas are de facto accessible to all the
people living there.
All the resources belong to the nation is called National Resources. The country has legal
powers to acquire even private property for public good. You might have seen roads,
canals, railways being constructed on fields owned by some individuals. Urban
Development Authorities get empowered by the government to acquire land. All the
minerals, water resources, forests, wildlife, land within the political boundaries and oceanic
area up to 12 nautical miles (22.2 km) from the coast termed as territorial water and
resources therein belong to the nation.
International institutions regulate some resources. These are called international
resources. The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the Exclusive Economic
Zone belong to open ocean and no individual country can utilise these without the
concurrence of international institutions.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate options.

i) The resources which are owned by the community are 4×1=4

a) plantation b) pasture land c) ponds d) all the above
ii) Which one of the following is not an example of National resources?
a) Railways b) Canals c) Forest d) Water in well
iii) On the basis of ownership plantations can be better considered as which or the
following types of resources?
a) Individual resource b) Community owned resource
c) National resource d) International resource
iv) The oceanic resources beyond 200 km of the Exclusive Economic Zone can be termed
as which of the following types of resource?
a) Individual resources b) Community owned resources
c) National resources d) International resources

13. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

This is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are
made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river
systems - the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend in Rajasthan
8 SS-Ch-3B
 and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal
plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri
rivers.

This type of soil is typical of the Deccan trap (Basalt) region spread over northwest Deccan
plateau and is made up of lava flows. They cover the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra,
Malwa, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh and extend in the south east direction along
the Godavari and the Krishna valleys.

i) Write two most important features of the Alluvial soil. 1

ii) Mention one area in which alluvial soil is rich and one area in which it is poor. 2

iii) What factors has led to the formation of the Black soil? 1

14. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

A B

i) On the basis of origin a) Flora and fauna

ii) On the basis of exhaustibility b) Renewable and non - renewable

iii) On the basis of ownership c) Individual, community, national and

international

iv) On the basis of status of d) Potential, developed stock and reserves

development

a) Only i - a b) Only ii - b c) ii - B & iii - c d) iii - c and iv - d

15. Human beings have indiscriminately used resources which have. This has led to which
of the following major problems.

a) Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of a few individuals

b) Accumulation of resources in few hands, which, divided the society into two
segments ie. haves and have nots

c) Both a and b b) None of the above

OR

Which of the following are correct about mountain soils? 1

i) Mountain soils are characterised by deposition of organic materials derived from

vegetative cover.

ii) They are heterogeneous in nature

iii) They are immature soils

iv) They are clayey

a) i and ii only b) ii and iii and iv only

c) i, ii, iii and iv d) i, ii and iii only

9 SS-Ch-3B
16. Indiscriminate use of resources has led to global ecological crisis. Which of the following
is NOT associated with the statement?
a) Land degradation b) Ozone layer maintenance
c) Environmental pollution d) Global warming
17. Analyse the Information given below. Choose one of the following correct options.
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance
in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There
are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other
resources. There are some regions which can be considered self sufficient in terms of
the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of
some vital resources. 1
Which of the following is not TRUE for resource planning?
i) Identification of resources.
ii) Institutional set up for implementing resources development plan.
a) Only i b) Only ii c) Both i and ii d) Neither i nor ii
18. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.
We have shared our land with the past generations and will have to do so with the future
generations too. Ninety-five percent of our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are
obtained from land. Human activities have not only brought about degradation of land but
have also aggravated the pace of natural forces to cause damage to land.
Some human activities such as deforestation, over grazing, mining, and quarrying too
have contributed significantly in land degradation.
Which of the following activity leads land degradation?
a) Quarrying b) Mining c) Afforestation d) Both a and b
SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
19. “In India, some regions are rich in certain types of resources but deficient in some other
resources”. Do you agree with the statement? Support your answer with any three
examples. 3
20. What steps can be taken to control soil erosion in hilly areas? 3
OR
Which is the main cause of land degradation in Gujarat, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh?
How can it be checked? Explain.
21. Describe any five characteristics of black soil in India. 5
OR
Explain the role of human in resource development.
22. Identify the major soil types marked on the given map of India (D, E, F). 3

10 SS-Ch-3B
 A

B
F

C
D

11
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

FOREST AND WILDLIFE Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. Which one of the following is an example of endemic species?

a) Nicobar Pigeon b) Asiatic Buffalo
c) Horn Bill d) Black buck
2. Which one of the following belongs to Vulnerable Species?
a) Black buck b) Crocodile
c) Indian rhino d) Blue sheep
3. Which one of the following types of species are known as the extinct species?
a) Species whose population levels are normal
b) Whose population has been declined
c) Species with small population d) Species which are not found
4. Fill in the blanks
Forest and waste lands belonging to both private individuals and government are known
as ................
OR
Species found in isolated places only are called ...................
5. Match the following animals with their category of existence.

Column A Column B

i) Black buck a) Rare

ii) Asiatic elephant b) Endangered

iii) Andaman wild pig c) Vulnerable

iv) Himalayan brown bear d) Endemic

a) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a b) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d
a) i - b, ii - d, iii - a, iv - c a) i - d, ii - a, iii - c, iv - b
6. Which of these statements is not a valid reason for the depletion of flora and fauna?
a) Agricultural expansion b) Large-scale developmental projects
c) Grazing and fuel wood collection d) Rapid industrialisation and urbanisation
7. Which one of the following statements is not true with regard to depletion of flora and
fauna?
1
 a) Land required for housing b) Agricultural expansion
c) Mining activities d) Shifting agriculture
8. What can ensure fodder supply and fuel wood supply in rural areas?

OR

What does afforestation lead to?

SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS

Assertion Reason Type questions
In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.
9. Assertion (A) : Forests plays a key role in the ecological system.
Reason (R) : Forest are the primary producers on which all other living beings
depend. 1
10. Assertion (A) : Depletion of forests causes a lot of danger.
Reason (R) : Forests are vital for the quality of life and environment. 1
11. Assertion (A) : Himalayan Yew is a medicinal plant.
Reason (R) : It has healing qualities. 1
12. Assertion (A) : Tiger population is not on the verge of extinction.
Reason (R) : Tiger population in forests is increasing rapidly day by day. 1
13. Assertion (A) : The tree is a peculiar organism of unlimited kindness.
Reason (R) : Trees are living organisms which makes no demands for its
sustenance, and extends generously the products of its life activity. 1

14. Read the passage and answer the questions that follows.

Conservation in the background of rapid decline in wildlife population and forestry has
become essential. But why do we need to conserve our forests and wildlife? Conservation
preserves the ecological diversity and our life support systems - water, air and soil. It also
preserves the genetic diversity of plants and animals for better growth of species and
breeding. For example, in agriculture, we are still dependent on traditional crop varieties.
Fisheries too are heavily dependent on the maintenance of aquatic biodiversity.

In the 1960s and 1970s, conservationists demanded a national wildlife protection

programme. The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented in 1972, with various
provisions for protecting habitats. An all-India list of protected species was also published.

The thrust of the programme was towards protecting the remaining population of certain
endangered species by banning hunting giving legal protection to their habitats, and

2 SS-Ch-4A
 restricting trade in wildlife. Subsequently, central and many state governments established
national parks and wildlife sanctuaries . The central government also announced several
projects for protecting specific animals, which were gravely threatened, including the
tiger, the one-horned rhinoceros, the Kashmir stag or hangul, three types of crocodiles -
fresh water crocodile, saltwater crocodile and the Gharial, the Asiatic lion, and others.
Most recently, the Indian elephant, black buck (chinkara), the great Indian bustard (godawan)
and the snow leopard, etc. have been given full or partial legal protection against hunting
and trade throughout India.

i) Which species of animals have no legal protection against hunting and trade throughout
India? 4×1=4

a) Cattle b) One horned rhinoceros

c) Asiatic lion d) Snow leopard

ii) Which of the following is NOT a reason for depletion of forests?

a) Mining b) Multi-purpose river valley projects

c) Grazing d) Creation of shelter belts

iii) Which is not the wildlife sanctuary?

a) Simplipal b) Ethunagaram c) Banbasa d) Ranthambore

iv) When was Project Tiger launched?

a) In 1973 b) In 1972 c) In 1983 d) In 1974

15. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows.

Some estimates suggest that at least 10 percent of India’s recorded wild flora and 20
percent of its mammals are on the threatened list. Many of these would now be categorised
as ‘critical’. that is on the verge of extinction like the cheetah, pink-headed duck, mountain
quail, forest spotted owlet, and plants like madhuca insignis (a wild variety of mahua) and
hubbardia heptaneuron, (a species of grass). In fact, no one can say how many species
may have already been lost. Today, we only talk of the larger and more visible animals
and plants that have become extinct but what about smaller animals like insects and
plants?

The destruction of forests and wildlife is not just a biological issue. The biological loss is
strongly correlated with the loss of cultural diversity. Such losses have increasingly
marginalised and impoverished many indigenous and other forest-dependent communities,
who directly depend on various components of the forest and wildlife for food, drink,
medicine, culture, spirituality, etc.

i) Name some of the species which are on the verge of extinction. 1

ii) What is ‘madhuca insignais’? 1

iii) How is the biological loss strongly correlated with the loss of cultural diversity? 2

3 SS-Ch-4A
16. Analyse the information given below choose one of the following correct options.

These are species which are in danger of extinction. The survival of such species is
difficult if the negative factors that have led to a decline in their population continue to
operate. The examples of such species are black buck, crocodile. Indian wild ass, Indian
rhino, lion tailed macaque, sangai (browanter deer in Manipur), etc.

a) Vulnerable species b) Endangered species

c) Extinct species d) Rare species 1

OR

Forests are regarded as most valuable as for as the conservation of forests and wildlife
resources. Analyze the information given below considering one of the following correct
options.

a) Reserved forests b) Protected forests

c) Unclassed forests d) Distribution of forests

17. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.

These are species which are only found in some particular areas usually isolated by
natural or geographical barriers. Examples of such species are the Andaman teal, Nicobar
pigeon. Andaman wild pig, mithun in Arunachal Pradesh.

Endemic species refers to the species which are 1

a) Extinct b) Declining

c) Confined to specific areas only d) Not found after search

18. “The tree is a cecullar organism of unlimited kindness and benevolence and makes n
demand for its sustenance, and extends generously the products of its life activity. It
affords protection to all beings, offering shade even to the exemen who destroy it”. Read
the above statement and answer the following questions?

i) Who quoted this statement? 1

ii) Describe the generous nature of the tree? 1

SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
19. “Grazing and fuel-wood collection are not responsible for deforestation in India”. Support
the statement with suitable reasons. 3

20. Analyse the reasons for the decline in India’s bio-diversity due to human activities. 5
OR
Describe the different types of plant and animal spcies found in India.

21. Why do we need to conserve our forests and wildlife resources? Explain any two steps
taken by the communities to protect our forest and wildlife resources. 5

22. Distinguish between normal species and endangered species. Write one example of each
category. 3
4 SS-Ch-4A
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

FOREST AND WILDLIFE Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal has been threatened about the loss of habitat of
many species due to
a) Industrial development b) Agricultural expansion
c) Port activities d) Mining
2. Which one of the following is NOT considered a sacred tree in India?
a) Peepal b) Neem c) Banyan d) Mango
3. Which of the following is NOT a reason for depletion of forests?
a) Mining b) Multi-purpose river valley projects
c) Grazing d) Creation of shelter belts
4. Fill in the blanks
............... is the name given to the forests of God and Goddesses.
OR
The state having highest percentage of protected forests is ..................
5. Match the following items given in Column A with those in column B.

Column A Column B

i) Madhya Pradesh a) Blue sheep

ii) Corbett-National Park b) West Bengal

iii) Sunderban National Park c) Uttarakhand

iv) Vulnerable Species d) Permanent forests

a) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a b) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
c) i - b, ii - c, iii - a, iv - d a) i - a, ii - c, iii - d, iv - b
6. Which of the following conservation strategies does not directly involve community
participation?
a) Joint Forest Management b) Beej Bachao Andolan
c) Chipko Movement d) Demarcation of Wildlife sanctuaries
7. The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal has been threatened about the loss of habitat of
many species due to
a) Land required for housing b) Agricultural expansion
c) Port activities d) Mining
6
8. What are the major disadvantages of deforestation?
OR
What can ensure fodder supply and fuel wood supply in rural areas?
SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS
Assertion Reason Type questions
In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.
9. Assertion (A) : Neglect of our environment has led to the destruction and extinction of
many species of animals and plant life.
Reason (R) : Decreasing Forest cover area is a major reason of destruction of
species. 1
10. Assertion (A) : Large-scale development projects have also contributed significantly
to the loss of forests.
Reason (R) : Large scale development projects doesn’t inundate hectares of forest.
1
11. Assertion (A) : We need to conserve our forests and wildlife.
Reason (R) : Rapid decline in wildlife population and forestry has been observed.1
12. Assertion (A) : Destruction of forests and wildlife resulted into the loss of cultural
diversity.
Reason (R) : The conservation of forests and wildlife is essential to provide a better
quality of life. 1
13. Assertion (A) : The decline in India’s bio-diversity due to human activities.
Reason (R) : Over population is another cause especially in third world countries.1
14. Read the passage and answer the questions that follows.
Reserved and protected forests are also referred ti as permanent forests estates
maintained for the purpose of producing timber and other forest produces and for protective
reasons. Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under permanent forests, constitution 75
percent of its total forests area. Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Kerala,
Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, and Maharashtra have large percentages of reserved forests
of its total forest area whereas Bihar, Hariyana, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha and
Rajasthan have a bulk of it under protected forests. All North-eastern states and parts of
Gujarat have very high percentage of their forests as unclassed forests managed by local
communities.
i) Reserved Forests : More than half of the total forest land has been declared reserved
forests. Reserved forests are regarded as the most valuable as far as the conservation
of forest and wildlife resources are concerned.
7 SS-Ch-4B
 ii) Protected Forests: Almost one-third of the total forest area is protected forest, as
declared by the Forest Department. This forest land are protected from any further
depletion.

iii) Unclassed Forests: These are other forests and wastelands belonging to both
government and private individuals and communities.

i) Forest land protected from any further depletion is called

a) Reserved forest b) Protected forest

c) Unclassed forest d) None of these

ii) Which state has the largest area under permanent forest?

a) Tamil Nadu b) Madhya Pradesh c) Maharashtra d) Jammu & Kashmir

iii) How much of the total forest area of India comes under the protected forest?

a) Two third b) One third c) One fourth d) Three fourth

iv) Forests and wastelands belonging to both private individuals and government as

a) Sacred groves b) Reserved forests

c) Protected forests d) Unclassed forests

15. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows.

The conservation projects are now focusing on biodiversity rather than on a few of its
components. There is now a more intensive search for different conservation measures,
Increasingly, even insects are beginning to find a place in conservation planning. In the
notification under Wildlife Act of 1980 and 1986, several hundred butterflies, moths,
beetless, and one dragonfly have been added to the list of protected species.

The clear lesson from the dynamics of both environmental destruction and reconstruction
in India is that local communities everywhere have to be involved in some kind of natural
resource management. But there is still a long way to go before local communities are at
the centre stage in decision-making. Accept only those economic or developmental
activities, that are people centric, environment-friendly and economically rewarding.

i) Why do we need to conserve our forests and wildlife? 2

ii) What do you mean by Extinct Species? 1

iii) How have human activities affected the depletion of flora and fauna? Explain. 1

16. Analyse the information given below, choose one of the following correct options.

These are species whose population has declined to levels from where it is likely to move
into the endangered category in the near future if the negative factors continue to operate.
The examples of such species are blue sheep, Asiatic elephant, Gangetic dolphin etc.

a) Vulnerable species b) Extinct species

c) Rare species d) Endemic species

7 SS-Ch-4B
 OR

Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under permanent forests. Unclassed forests are
situated the north-eastern states of India and Gujarat. Mangrove forests are found in
Sundarban Delta and Deltas of east flowing rivers of the peninsular plateau. Analyze the
information given below considering one of the following correct options.

a) Protected forests b) Unclassed forests

c) Reserved forests d) Distribution forests

17. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.

Some estimates suggest that at least 10 percent of India’s recorded wild flora and 20
percent of its mammals are on the threatened list. Many of these would now be categorised
as ‘critical’, that is on the verge of extinction like the cheetah, pink-headed duck, mountain
quail, forest spotted owlet, and plants like madhuca insignis (a wild variety of mahua) and
hubbardia heptaneuron, (a species of grass). In fact, no one can say how many species
may have already been lost.

Flora and fauna categorised as critical means that they are 1

a) Not to be found after searches b) On the verge of extinction

c) Declining towards endangered category d) Normal for their survival

18. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

i) Which forests cover the least area? India 1

Forest Cover by Density Class (1999)
ii) Where are they mainly found? 1

SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

19. How does the participation of people play an important role in the conservation of forest s
and wildlife in our country? Explain with the help of five suitable examples. 3

20. Analyse the reasons for the decline in India’s bio-diversity due to human activities. 5

OR

Give three reasons why we need to save the bio-diversity of our planet.

21. Write the full form of IUCN? Mention four different types of species of flora and fauna as
per the classification given by IUCN. 5

22. What are extinct species? Describe any two factors that caused fearful depletion of bio-
diversity of India. 3
8 SS-Ch-4B
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

WATER RESOURCES Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. Which one of the following is not the example of Hydraulic structures in Ancient India?
a) Bhopal Lake b) Lake Hauz Kauz
c) Construction of dam, Lakes d) Damodar Valley Project
2. Which one of the following is not the cause of water scarcity?
a) Rapid growth of population b) Uneven distribution of water resources
c) Construction of dams and reserves d) Increase in demand
3. Which one of the following is not an adverse effect of dams?
a) Interstate water disputes b) Excessive sedimentation of reservoir
c) Displacement of population d) Irrigation
4. Narmada Bachao Andolan is a movement created against .................
OR
A 200 year old system of tapping stream and spring water prevalent in Meghalaya is
known as ...............
5. Match the Columns.
Column A Column B
a) Sardar Sarovar i) Satluj
b) Hirakud ii) Bhopal Lake
c) River of sorrow iii) Mahanadi
d) Largest artificial Lake in the 11th century iv) Narmada
e) Bhakra Nangal v) Damodar
a) a - iv, b - iii, c - v, d - ii, e - i b) a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv, e - v
c) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii, e - v d) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i, e - v
6. Large senl irrigation has led to
i) changed cropping pattern in many regions
ii) increased salinisation of soil
iii) average reduction in crop production
iv) increasing gap between the rich and the poor farmers
a) i, ii, iii b) i, iii, iv c) i, ii, iv d) i, iv, iii

1
7. What is hydrological cycle?
OR

Who benefits from multi-purpose projects? Name any two sections of society.

8. Multi-purpose projects and large dams have also been the cause of many new ________.

a) community movements

b) pressure movements

c) local movements

d) social movements

SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS

Assertion Reason Type questions

In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.
9. Assertion (A) : The availability of water resources varies over space and time.
Reason (R) : Availability of water resources helps in storing water. 1
10. Assertion (A) : Irrigation has also changed the cropping pattern.
Reason (R) : Crops are now sown according to the amount and availability of water.
1
11. Assertion (A) : Growing population is the main reason for water scarcity.
Reason (R) : Irrigation from tube wells and canals is responsible for water scarcity.
1
12. Assertion (A) : Irrigation has also changed the cropping pattern.

Reason (R) : Crops are now sown according to the amount and availability of water.
1
13. Assertion (A) : Multi-purpose projects help to control floods by regulating water flow.
Reason (R) : Dafrisyere constructed to conserve water. 1

14. Analyze the information given below considering one of the following correct
options.

i) It is a 200 year old system of tapping streams.

ii) About 18-29 litres of water eaters the bamboo pipes 5 system.

iii) It springs water by using bamboo pipes.

a) Bamboo Drip Irrigation System b) Rainwater harvesting

2 SS-Ch-9A
 c) Water conservation d) Irrigation 1

15. Read the passage below and answer that follows.

Given the abundance and renewability of water, it is difficult to imagine that we may suffer
from water scarcity. The moment we speak of water shortages, we immediately associate
it with regions having low rainfall or those that are drought prone. We instantaneously
visualise the deserts of Rajasthan and women balancing many ‘matkas’ (earthen pots)
used for collecting and storing water and travelling long distances to get water.

Multi-purpose projects, launched after Independence with their integrated water resources
management approach, were thought of as the vehicle that would lead the nation to
development and progress overcoming the handicap of its colonial past. Jawaharlal Nehru
proudly proclaimed the dams as the ‘temples of modern India’; the reason being that it
would integrate development of agriculture and the village economy with rapid
industrialisation and growth of the urban economy.

i) What is the main cause of water scarcity? 1

ii) How do dams help in conserving and managing water? 2

iii) Why did Jawaharlal Nehru proclaim dams as ‘temples of modern India’? 1

16. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.

In recent years, multi-purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny
and opposition for a variety of reasons. Regulating and damming of rivers affect their
natural flow causing poor sediment flow and excessive sedimentation at the bottom of
the reservoir, resulting in rockier stream beds and poorer habitats for the rivers’ aquatic
life. Dams also fragment rivers making it difficult for aquatic fauna to migrate, especially
for spawning. The reservoirs that are created on the floodplains also submerge the existing
vegetation and soil leading to its decomposition over a period of time.

Multi-purpose projects and large dams have also been the cause of many new
environmental movements like the ‘Narmada Bachao Andolan’ and the ‘Tehri Dam Andolan’
etc. Resistance to these projects has primarily been due to the large-scale displacement
of been due to the large-scale displacement of local communities. Local people often had
to give up their land, livelihood and their meagre access and control over resources for
the greater good of the nation. So, if the local people are not benefiting from such projects
then who is benefited? Perhaps, the landowners and large farmers, industrialists and few
urban centres.

i) Which one of the following is not an adverse effect of dams? 4×1=4

a) Inter-state water disputes b) Excessive sedimentation of reservoir

c) Displacement of population d) Flood control

3 SS-Ch-9A
 ii) Against the construction of which one of the folowing multi-purpose projects was the
Narmada Bachao Andolan launched?

a) Sardar Sarovar b) Bhakra Nangal

c) Rihand d) Tehri

iii) On which one of the following rivers the Tehri dam is being constructed?

a) Bhagirathi b) Yamuna c) Kosi d) Satluj

iv) Which of the following rivers is not having any multi-purpose river project?

a) Satluj, Beas b) Mahanadi c) Narmada d) Yamuna

17. Identify the dam with the help of following features.

i) It has been built over the Narmada river in Gujarat.

ii) It is one of the largest water resource projects of India covering for states Maharashtra,
Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan.

iii) This project could meet the requirement of water in drought prone and desert areas
of Gujarat and Rajasthan. 1

18. Read the sources given below and answer the question.

96.5 percent of the total volume of world’s water is estimated to exist as oceans and only
2.5 percent as freshwater. Nearly 70 percent of this freshwater occurs as ice sheets and
glaciers in Antarctica Greenland and the mountainous regions of the world, while a little
less than 30 percent is stored as groundwater in the world’s aquifers.

• India receives nearly 4 percent of the global precipitation and ranks 133 in the world in
terms of water availability per person per annum.

• The total renewable water resources of India are estimated at 1,897 sq km per annum.

• By 2025, it is predicted that large parts of India will join countries or regions having
absolute water scarcity.

Non-saline water can be renewed and recharged by

a) Ship b) Scarcity of water c) Hydrological cycle d) MNC 1

OR

Here are some false statements. Identify the mistakes and rewrite them correctly.

a) Multiplying urban centres with large and dense populations with urban lifestyles
have helped in proper utilizations of water resources.

b) Regulating and damming of rivers does not affect the river’s natural flow and its
sediment flow.

c) In Gujarat, the Sabarmati basin farmers were not agitated when higher priority was
given to water supply in urban areas, particularly during droughts.

4
SS-Ch-9A
 d) Today in Rajasthan, the practice of rooftop rainwater harvesting has gained
popularity despite high water availability due to Rajasthan Canal.

SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

19. ‘Water is a very important and critical resource in India’. Support the statement by explaining
any three points. 3

20. Dams are referred as the ‘temples of modern India’? Who said this and why? 5

OR

Explain the ecological problems being faced due to the multi-purpose river projects.

21. Describe how modern adaptations of traditional rainwater harvesting methods are being
carried out to conserve and store water. 5

OR

Why is groundwater a highly overused resource?

22. The given map of India locate and label the following dams. 3

a) Bhakra Nangal b) Rana Pratap Sagar c) Salal

5
SS-Ch-9A
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

WATER RESOURCES Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. Which state has made roof top rainwater harvesting structure compulsory to all houses
across the state?

a) Kerala b) Karnataka c) Tamil Nadu d) Andhra Pradesh

2. Water is a renewable resource because

a) It is being recycled by human beings

b) It is renewed and recharged through hydrological cycle

c) It is being renewed through reduction d) It can be reused again

3. What percentage of the total volume of world’s water is estimated to exist as oceans?

a) 94.5% b) 95.5% c) 96.5% d) 97.5%

4. In semi-arid regions of Rajasthan the traditional system of storing drinking water in

underground tanks are called ...............

OR

In flood plains of West Bengal people developed ................ to irrigate their fields.
5. Match the items given in Column A with those in Column B.

Column A Column B

a) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam i) Bhopal

b) Salal Dam ii) Hyderabad

c) Bhopal Lake iii) Krishna

d) Hussain Sagar Lake iv) Chenab

a) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv b) a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii

c) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii d) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
6. Which of the following is not the cause of water scarcity?
a) Rapid growth of population b) Uneven distribution of water resources
c) Construction of dams and resources d) Increase in demand
7. How dams are classified on the basis of structure and material used?
OR
Which are the resources of fresh water?
6
8. Identify the country which along with lndia provide habitat to about two thirds of the surviving
tiger population in the world.

a) Nepal b) Pakistan c) Sri Lanka d) Bangladesh

SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS

Assertion Reason Type questions
In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.
9. Assertion (A) : Dams are referred to as multi-purpose projects. 1
Reason (R) : Dams are built for irrigation, electricity generation, water supply for
domestic and industrial use, flood control, recreation and fish breeding.
10. Assertion (A) : Irrigation is considered to be the major source of agriculture.
Reason (R) : Dams are well-known for their capacity to hold water for agriculture.1
11. Assertion (A) : Ground water a highly overused resource.
Reason (R) : Ground water is used for domestic and drinking purpose. 1
12. Assertion (A) : Water is a renewable resource.
Reason (R) : Freshwater is mainly obtained from surface run off and ground water
that is continually being renewed. 1
13. Assertion (A) : Rain water harvesting is to collect and store rain water. 1
Reason (R) : Rain water can be directed to recharge the underground water source.

14. Analyze the information given below considering one of the following correct
options.

i) It is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs directs or retards the flow of creating
a reservoir, lake or impoundment.

ii) They are classified according to structure, intended purpose or height.

iii) They are built not just for irrigation but also for electricity generation, water supply for
domestic and industrialises flood control recreation, inland navigation and fish breeding.

a) Multipurpose Projects b) Dams

c) kadins d) Tankas 1

15. Read the passage below and answer that follows.

Many thought that given the disadvantages and rising resistance against the multipurpose
projects, water harvesting system was a viable alternative, both socio-economically and
environmentally. In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there
existed and extraordinary tradition of water-harvesting system. People had in-depth
7 SS-Ch-6B
 knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and developed wide ranging techniques to
harvest rainwater, groundwater, river water and flood water in keeping with the local
ecological conditions and their water needs.
Today, in western Rajasthan, sadly the practice of rooftop rainwater harvesting is on the
decline as plenty of water is available due to the perennial India Gandhi Canal, though
some houses still maintain the tankas since they do not like the taste of tap water.
Fortunately, in many parts of rural and urban India, rooftop rainwater harvesting is being
successfully adapted to store and conserve water.
i) What are the disadvantages of multipurpose river projects? 1
ii) Name some of the extraordinary ancient rain water-harvesting system in India. 2
iii) What is ‘Palar pani’? 1
16. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.
Many thought that given the disadvantages and rising resistance against the multi-purpose
projects, water harvesting system was a viable alternative, both socio-economically and
environmentally. In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there
existed an extraordinary tradition of water-harvesting system. People had in-depth
knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and developed wide ranging techniques to
harvest rainwater, groundwater, river water and flood water in keeping with the local
ecological conditions and their water needs. 4×1=4
i) In which of the following regions, people built ‘Guls’ and ‘Kuls’ for irrigation?
a) Northern plains b) Western Himalayas
c) Coastal areas d) None of these
ii) In which one of the following states was rooftop rain water harvesting practised?
a) West Bengal b) Haryana c) Rajasthan d) Punjab
iii) Which one of the following techniques is adopted to harvest rainwater in hilly and
mountainous regions?
a) Johads b) Inundation channels
c) Khadins d) Guls or Kuls
iv) Which of the following is not a method of water harvesting used in Rajasthan?
a) Johads b) Khadins c) Guls d) Tankas
17. Identify the movement with the help of following features.
i) It is a NGO that mobilised tribal people farmers environmentalists and human rights
activists against Sardar Sarovar Dam being built across the Narmada river in Gujarat.
ii) It originally focused on the environmental issues related to trees that would be
submerged under the dam water.
iii) Recently it has re-focused the aim to enable poor citizens especially the displaced
people to get full rehabilitation facilities from the government. 1

8 SS-Ch-9B
18. Read the source given below and answer the question.

In the first century B.C., Sringaverapura near Allahabad had sophisticated water harvesting
system channelling the flood water of the river Ganga.

• During the time of Chandragupta Maurya, dams, lakes and irrigation systems were
extensively built.

• Evidences of sophisticated irrigation works have also been found in Kalinga, (Odisha),
Nagarjunakoda (Andhra Pradesh), Bennur (Karnataka), Kolhapur (Maharashtra), etc.

• In the 11 th century, Bhopal Lake, one of the largest artificial lakes of its time was built.

• In the 14 th century, the tank in Hauz Khas, Delhi was constructed by Iltutmish for
supplying water to Siri Fort area.

Which of the following was the largest artificial lake built in 11 th century?

a) Kalinga lake b) Kolhapur lake c) Bennur lake d) Bhopal lake 1

OR

Based on the information given below classify each of the situations as ‘suffering from
water scarcity’ or ‘not suffering from water scarcity’.

a) Region with high annual rainfall

b) Region having high annual rainfall and large population

c) Region having high annual rainfall but water is highly polluted

d) Region having low rainfall and low population

SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

19. Is it possible that an area or region may have ample water resources, but is still facing
water scarcity? Explain with the help of three relevant examples. 3

20. What is a multi-purpose river valley project. Mention any four objectives of it. 5

OR

Why is rooftop rainwater harvesting important in Rajasthan? Explain.

21. Mention the new social movements that have been a result of opposition to multi-purpose
river projects in India. Why did they oppose to these projects? 5

OR

‘In recent years multi-purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny
and opposition’. Do you agree with the statement? Support your answer with any three
arguments.

22. The given map of India locate and label the following dams. 3

a) Nagarjuna Sagar b) Thungabhadra c) Hirakud

9 SS-Ch-6B
10 SS-Ch-6B
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

MINERALS AND ENERGY RESOURCES Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Where is the largest wind farm cluster located in India?

a) Andhra Pradesh b) Kerala c) Karnataka d) Tamil Nadu

2. Ferrous minerals account for about ............. of the total value of production of metallic
minerals.

a) One-fourth b) Two-fourth c) Three-fourth d) Two-third

3. Which out of the following metallic minerals is obtained from veins and iodes?
a) Zinc b) Limestone c) Rutile d) Mica
4. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B.
A B
i) Ferrous metallic mineral a) Copper
ii) Non-metallic mineral b) Natural gas
iii) Non-ferrous metallic mineral c) Nickal
iv) Energy mineral d) Granite

a) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv -b b) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv -b

c) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - i d) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv -a

5. Following is the sequence of generating geothermal.

i) It is so hot that when it rises to the earth’s surface, it turns into steam.

ii) Groundwater in such areas (where the geothermal gradient is high) absorbs eat from
the rocks and becomes hot.

iii) This steam is used to drive turbines and generate electricity.

iv) Geothermal energy exists, because the earth grows progressively hotter with
increasing depth.

a) iv - ii - i - iii b) ii - i - iv - iii c) i - iv - iii - ii d) iii - ii - iv - i

6. Read the following statements, choose correct option.

Assertion (A) : Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives 1

Reason (R) : Minerals have a universal use, they are used to manufacture everything we
use in our day to day lives.

1
 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is wrong

d) A is wrong but R is true

7. Study the Pie-chart showing production of Manganese state-wise share in percent,

2016-17. Answer the question that follows.
Which two states have equal deposits of manages?

a) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra

b) Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh

c) Maharashtra and Odisha

d) Karnataka and Odisha

8. Read the information given below, and select the correct options.
It lies in Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra. Very high grade hematites are found in the famous
Bailadila range of hills in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh. The range of hill comprise of
14 deposits of super high grade hematite iron ore. It has the best physical properties
needed for steel making. Iron ore from these mines is exported to Japan and South Korea
Via Vishakhapatnam port.
a) Odisha - Jharkhand Belt
b) Bellary - Chitradurga - Chikkamagaluru - Tumkur belt
c) Maharashtra - Goa Belt d) Maharashtra - Goa Belt
9. The largest solar power plant is located at
a) Ahmedabad b) Madhapur c) Mahabalipuram d) Taar Desert

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. How does mining affect the health of miners?
OR
Why aluminium metal has great importance?
11. Which state is the largest producer of manganese in India? Mention any two uses of
manganese.

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×3=6

12. “India has fairly rich and varied mineral resources across different regions”. Support the
statement with examples.

13. Describe any three characteristics of the Durg-Bastar - Chandrapur Iron-ore belt in India.

OR

Explain any three different forms in which minerals general occur.

2 SS-Ch-Minerals and .......A

 SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

14. ‘Energy saved is energy produced’. Assess the statement. 5

OR

“Natural gas is considered an environment - friendly fuel”. Explain the statement in two
points.

15. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Assess the importance of its
different forms.

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

16. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives. Almost everything we use, from a tiny pin
to a towering building or a big ship, all are made from minerals. The railway lines and the
tarmac (paving) of the roads, out implements and machinery too are made from minerals.
Cars, buses, trains, aeroplanes are manufactured from minerals and run on power
resources derived from the earth. Even the food that we eat contains minerals. in all
stages of development, human beings have used minerals for their livelihood, decoration,
festivities, religious and ceremonial rites.

i) What are minerals? 1

ii) What is the importance of minerals in our lifes? 2

iii) Name one hardest and softest mineral. 1

17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

We all appreciate the strong dependence of industry and agriculture upon mineral deposits
and the substances manufactured from them. The total volume of workable mineral
deposits is an insignificant fraction ie. one percent of the earth’s crust. We are rapidly
consuming mineral resources that required millions of years to be created and
concentrated.

i) Why is conservation of minerals important? 1

ii) How can we conserve minerals? 2

iii) Name two mineral which may occur as alluvial deposits. 1

SECTION F - MAP SKILL BASED QUESTIONS 3

18. i) On the outline map of India identify the following Oilfields and write their correct name on
the lines marked on the map.

ii) On the same map of India locate and label the following Nuclear power plants.

Narora, Tarapur

3 SS-Ch-Minerals and .......A

 •

•
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

MINERALS AND ENERGY RESOURCES Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Which one of the following metals can be obtained from Bauxite?

a) Aluminium b) Copper c) Iron d) Silver

2. The toothbrush and tube containing paste are made up of plastic obtained from
a) Mica b) Petroleum c) Fibre d) Paper

3. Which out of the following places is known for lignite deposits?

a) Khetri b) Neyeli c) Baliadila d) Bokaro
4. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B.
Column A Column B
i) Iron ore a) Electric and electronic industry
ii) Copper b) Bleaching power
iii) Manganese c) Machine tools
iv) Mica d) Electric cables

5. Read the following statement and choose correct option.

Assertion (A) : Geological processes of mineral formation is slow.
Reason (R) : Minerals resources are consumed way quickly than they are formed.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is wrong d) A is wrong but R is true
6. A person who studies the formation of minerals, their age, physical and chemical properties
is called.

a) Geographer b) Geophysical c) Geologist d) Geomorphologist

7. Study the pie chart showing production of Iron-ore state-wise share in percent
2016-17.
Which state has the maximum production
of iron-ore?

a) Karnataka
b) Jharkhand
c) Chhattisgarh
d) Odisha
6
8. Read the information given below, and select the following correct options.
Shrubs, farm waste, animal and human waste are used to produce biogas for domestic
consumption in rural areas. Decomposition of organic matter yields gas, which has higher
thermal efficiency in comparison to kerosene, during cake and charcoal. Biogas plants
are set up at municipal cooperative and individual levels. The plants, using cattle India.
These provide twin benefits to the farmer in the form of energy and improved quality of
manure. Biogas is by far the most efficient use of cattle dung. It improves the quality of
manure and also prevents the loss of trees and manure due to burning of fuel wood and
cow dung cakes.
a) Solar Energy b) Tidal Energy
c) Biogas d) Geothermal Energy
9. What is the most important use of mica?
a) It is a light mineral b) It has insulating property

c) It is used for making wires d) It is strong and malleable

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. How do minerals occur in sedimentary rocks?
OR
How do minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks?
11. Name the non-metallic mineral which can split easily into thin sheets. Mention uses.

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×3=6

12. What efforts are required to use mineral resources in a planned and sustainable manner?

13. Describe any three characteristics of Odisha Jharkhand belt of iron ore in India.

OR

Describe any three characteristics of Bellary-Chitradurga-Chikmaglur-Tumkur ore belt in India.

SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

14. “Minerals are indispensable part of our lives”. Support the statement with examples. 5

OR

“There is a pressing need for using renewable energy sources in India”. Justify the
statement.

15. “Conservation of minerals is the need of the hour”. Support the statement with five facts.

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

16. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Minerals are usually found in “ores”. The term ore is used to describe an accumulation of
any mineral mixed with other elements. The mineral content of the ore must be in sufficient
concentration to make its extraction commercially viable. The type of formation or structure
7 SS-Ch-Minerals and .......B
 in which they are found determines the relative ease with which mineral ores may be
mined. This also determines the cost of extraction of minerals.

i) What is an ‘ore’? 1

ii) Give an example of a mineral which is found in veins and lodes. 1

iii) What determines the cost of extraction of mineral? 2

17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.
Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development. India is endowed
with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. India is rich in good quality iron ores. Magnetite
is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70 percent. It has excellent
magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the electrical industry. Hematite ore is the most
important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used, but has a slightly lower iron
content than magnetic. (50 - 60 percent).

i) Which is the finest iron ore and why? Write any one of its use. 2

ii) Which mines located in the Western Ghats of Kartanaka are a 100 percent export
unit. 1

iii) Name the two districts of Odisha where Iron Ore deposits are found in abundance.1

SECTION E - MAP SKILL BASED QUESTIONS 3

18. i) On the outline map of India identify the following iron ore mines and write their correct
name on the lines marked on the map.
ii) On the same map of India locate and label the following Thermal power plant.
Fingrauli

8 SS-Ch-Minerals and .......B

 •

•
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Identify the category of a person who worked in a steel factory?

a) Primary activities b) Secondary activities
c) Both a & b d) Tertiary activities
2. Industrial locations are complex in nature. Which factors are influenced the industrial
locations?
a) Availability of raw material b) Labour
c) Capital d) All of the above
3. Choose the incorrect statement.
a) India’s position is second in production of Sugar
b) India occupies the first place in the production of gur and khandsari
c) Sixty percent of sugar mills are located in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
d) Sugar industry is running continuously
4. Read the information given below, and select the correct options.
Assertion : India has world class production in spinning.
Reason : Weaving is done by handloom, power loom, and in mills.
a) Assertion and Reason both are true and Reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Assertion and Reason both are true and Reason is the not correct explanation of
assertion.
c) Assertion is true but Reason are false. d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
5. Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?

A B

a. Heavy industry Electronics

b. Small scale industry Capital less than one lakh

c. Large scale industry Iron and steel industry

d. Light industry Capital more than 1 lakh

6. What are the reasons that economists predict that manufacturing can achieve its target
over the next decade?
a) With appropriate policy interventions by the government
b) Renewed efforts by the industry to improve productivity
c) Both A & B d) None of the above
1
7. Read the information given below and select the correct option.
These plants are smaller, have electric furnaces, use steel scrap and sponge iron. They
have re-rollers that use steel ingots as well. They produce mild and alloy steel of given
specifications.
a) Heavy Steel Plants b) Major Steel Plants
c) Mini Steel Plants d) Light Steel Plants

8. Match the following.

Column A Column B

i) Information Technology and a) Gurugram

Electronics Industry

ii) Cement Industry b) Rajasthan

iii) Automobile Industry c) Gujarat

iv) Fertilizer Industry d) Bengaluru

a) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b b) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b

a) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d a) i - b, ii - c, iii - a, iv - d

9. Fill in the blanks.

Type of industry Agro based Mineral

industry industry

Cotton .............

a) Soap Industry b) Textile Industry

c) Paper Industry d) Iron and Steel Industry
SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4
10. Why has the ‘National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council’ been set-up?
11. Name the electronic goods producing centres of India.
OR
Why is the ‘least cost’ known as decision making factor for ideal location of an industry?
SECTION C - (SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS) 2×3=6
12. Describe the factors responsible for the jute mills location in the banks of the Hugli river.
OR
What are the challenges faced by Jute industry. Write steps taken to the these challenges.
13. Analyse any three major challenges faced by the sugar industry in India.
SECTION D - (LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS) 2 × 5 = 10

14. Suggest any five steps to minimize the environmental degradation caused by the industrial
development in India.

2 SS-Ch-Manufacturing .... A
 OR

“Industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand”. Explain the statement.

15. “Agriculture and industry are complementary to each other.” Explain with four examples.

OR

Classify industries on the basis of source of raw material. How are they different from each
other?

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

16. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

In ancient India. cotton textiles were produced with hand spinning and handloom weaving
techniques. After the 18th century, power-looms came into use. Our traditional industries
suffered a setback during the colonial period because they could not compete with the
mill-made cloth from England.

India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands at second place as an
exporter after goods and stands at second place as an exporter after Bangladesh. Most
of the mills are located in West Bengal, mainly along the banks of the Hugli river in a
narrow belt.

i) When and where was the first Jute mill was established? 1

ii) Describe the importance of cotton textile industries in the economy of India. 2

iii) What factors govern the location of cotton textile industry? 1

17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Although industries contribute significantly to India’s economic growth and development,

the increase in pollution of land, water, air, noise and resulting degradation of environment
that they have caused, cannot be overlooked. Industries are responsible for four types of
pollution (a) Air, (b) Water, (c) land, (d) Noise. The pollution industries also include thermal
power plants.

i) Explain Thermal Pollution. 1

ii) What are the effects of the noise pollution? 1

iii) How can we control environmental degradation? 2

SECTION F - Map skill based Questions 3

18. On the outline map of India locate and label the following software technology parks.

a) Gandhi Nagar b) Bengaluru c) Pune

3 SS-Ch-Manufacturing .... A
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. The industries are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials,
workers or both falls in which sector?
a) Joint sector b) Cooperative sector
c) Public sector d) Private sector
2. Which among the following is a example of Basic and Key industries?
a) Iron and steel smelting b) Copper and aluminium smelting
c) Both A & B d) Rubber Industries
3. Choose the incorrect statement about manufacturing sector.
a) Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development
b) Manufacturing industries reduce the heavy dependence of people on agriculture

c) Industrial development is not a precondition for eradication of poverty

d) Export of manufacturing goods expands trade and commerce

4. Read the information given below, and select the correct options.
Assertion : Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other.
Reason : The agro-industries have given boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
a) Assertion and Reason both are true and Reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Assertion and Reason both are true and Reason is the not correct explanation of
assertion.
c) Assertion is true but Reason are false. d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
5. Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?

A B

a. Agro based industry Iron and steel industry

b. Mineral based industry Cotton industry
c. Basic industry Chemical industry
d. Consumer industry Paper industry

6. What were the main reasons for concentrating cotton textile industry in Maharashtra and
Gujarat?
a) Availability of raw material b) Market and transport
c) Accessible port facilities d) All of the above

6
7. Read the information given below and select the correct option.
It not only results in irritation and anger. It can also cause hearing impairment, increased
heart rate and blood pressure among other physiological effect. Unwanted sound is an
irritant and a source of stress. Industrial and construction activities, machinery, factory
equipment, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills also make a lot of noise.
a) Water Pollution b) Noise Pollution
c) Air Pollution d) Soil pollution

8. Match the following.

A B

i) Agro Based Industry a) Amul

ii) Private Sector Industry b) Oil India Ltd.

iii) Joint Sector Industry c) Jute Industry

iv) Cooperative Sector Industry d) TISCPO

a) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a b) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
a) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d a) i - b, ii - c, iii - a, iv - d
9. Fill in the blanks.
Classification of Strength of Finished
Industry on the labour foods

basis of ............... Light industry

a) Private Sector Industry b) Joint Sector Industry

c) Public Sector Industry d) Large Scale Industry

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. What is agglomeration economies?

11. What is manufacturing?

OR

Why is it important for our country to keep the mill sector loomage lower than power loom
and handloom?

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS 2×3=6

12. “The Jute Industry occupies an important place in Indian Economy”. Justify.
OR
India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world but it could not perform to its
full potential. Why?

13. “Environmental degradation has been seen everywhere.” Explain any three steps that can
help to prevent environment degradation.
7 SS-Ch-Manufacturing .... B
 SECTION D - LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10
14. Evaluate the factors which are responsible for the location of jute industry in West Bengal.

OR

Describe the various physical and human factors responsible for the location of industries.

15. “Agriculture and industry are complementary to each other.” Explain with four examples.

OR

Explain the pro-active approach adopted by the National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)
for preserving the natural environment and resources.

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

16. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

India stands second as a world producer of sugar but occupies the first place in the
production of gur and khandsari. The raw material used in this industry is bulky, and in
haulage its sucrose content reduces. The mills are located in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana and
Madhya Pradesh. Sixty percent mills are in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. This industry is
seasonal in nature so, it is ideally suited to the cooperative sector.

i) Explain why in recent years, there is a tendency for the sugar Industries to shift in the
southern States. 2

ii) What are the challenges of this industry? 1

iii) Where should the sugar mills be ideally located? 1

17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Industrial locations are complex in nature. These are influenced by availability of raw
material, labour, capital, power and market, etc. It is rarely possible to find all these factors
available at one place. Consequently, manufacturing activity tends to locate at the most
appropriate place where all the factors of industrial location are either available or can be
arranged at lower cost. After an industrial activity starts, urbanisation follows. Sometimes,
industries are located in or near the cities.
i) What factors affect the location of industries? 1
ii) How does industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand? 2
iii) Classify industries on the basis of source of raw materials used. 1

SECTION F - MAP SKILL BASED QUESTIONS 3

18. On the outline map of India locate and label the following software technology parks.

a) Noida b) Hyderabad c) Pune

8 SS-Ch-Manufacturing .... B
9 SS-Ch-Manufacturing .... B
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

POWER SHARING Marks : 40

SET A
SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8
1. A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it
wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is
a) Power sharing b) Central Government
c) Majoritarianism d) Community Government
2. Which of the following was not a provision of the Act of 1956 passed in Sri Lanka?
a) Singhala was recognised as the only official language
b) Buddhism was to be protected by the state
c) Provinces autonomy was given to Tamils
d) Sinhala’s were favoured in government jobs
3. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes below in the
lists.
List I List II
1) Power sharing a) Power shared among different levels of
the government
2) Check and balances b) Reduce the possibility of conflict between
social groups
3) Vertical divisions c) Example of power sharing among
different social groups
4) Reserved constituencies d) Power sharing among different organs of
the government
a) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b b) 1 - d, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - a
c) 1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - c d) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - b
4. Apart from the central and the state governments, which is the third type of government
practised in Belgium?
a) Local government b) Municipal government
c) Community government d) Ethnic government
5. In the Capital City Brussels, 80% people speak ................
OR
In Sri Lanka the democratically elected government adopted a series of .............
measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.
1
6. What is the prudential reason behind power sharing?
OR
What did Belgians do to bring together the ethnic groups?
7. Why power sharing between different organs of the government is being referred as the
horizontal distribution of power?
a) Different organs of the government can exercise unlimited power
b) Different organs of the government are placed at the same level and can check each
other
c) Different levels of the government can exercise different power
d) Different levels of the government can exercise unlimited power
8. System of ‘checks and balance’ means
a) Horizontal distribution of powers b) Separation of powers
c) Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of government by
maintaining a balance of power among various institutions
d) Federal division of powers

SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS

Assertion Reason Type questions
In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.
9. Assertion (A) : Democracy accommodates different social groups.
Reason (R) : In a democracy power can be shared among different social group is
linguistic and religions group. 1
10. Assertion (A) : Power should reside with one person and group located at one place
in a democracy.
Reason (R) : If the power is dispersed, it will not be possible to take decision quickly
and enforce it. 1
11. Assertion (A) : Belgian government was unable to solve its ethnic Problem.
Reason (R) : Most of the powers lie with central government and only few powers
given to the state government. 1
12. Assertion (A) : Power sharing is important in a democracy.
Reason (R) : It helps to increase the possibility of conflict between social groups.1
13. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows.
Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive
and judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different
2 SS-Ch-5A
 organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a
separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ
checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions, we
studied that in a democracy, even though ministers and government officials exercise
power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, although
judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or
laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and
balances.
i) Power sharing is between - 4×1=4
a) legislature, executive and parliament b) legislature, executive and judiciary
c) legislature, high court and judiciary d) none of the above
ii) It allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different
powers. This is known as .............
a) circular distribution of power b) vertical distribution of power
c) horizontal distribution of power d) all the above
iii) Judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or
laws made by the legislatures, known as .................
a) horizontal distribution of power b) checks and balances
c) vertical distribution of power d) all the above
iv) Power sharing means -
a) system of political arrangements in which power is shared between ministers of
the government
b) system of political arrangements in which power is shared between different
organs of the government
c) system of political arrangements in which power is shared between different levels
of government
d) all the above
14. Read the passage and answer the questions that follows.

Power may also be shared among different social groups, such as the religious and
linguistic groups. ‘Community government’ in Belgium is a good example of this
arrangement. In some countries there are constitutional and legal arrangements whereby
socially weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration.
This type of arrangement is meant to give space in the government and administration to
diverse social groups who otherwise would feel alienated from the government. This
method is used to give minority communities a fair share in power.

Which is not a feature of Community government? 1

a) Apart from the Central and the State Government, this is a third type of government

3 SS-Ch-5A
 b) It is elected by the people belonging to one community that is Dutch, French, German
speaking

c) It is mainly based on cooperation and tolerance

d) It does not have the power regarding cultural, educational and language related issues

OR

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.

Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups
and movements control or influence those in power. In a democracy, the citizens must
have freedom to choose among various contenders for power. In contemporary
democracies, this takes the form of competition among different parties. Such competition
ensures that power does not remain in one hand. In the long run, power is shared among
different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups. Sometimes
this kind of sharing can be direct, when two or more parties form an alliance to contest
elections. If their alliance is elected, they form a coalition government and thus share
power. In a democracy, we find interest groups such as those of traders, businessmen,
industrialists, farmers and industrial workers. They also will have a share in governmental
power, either through participation in governmental committees or bringing influence on
the decision-making process.

What do you understand by pressure groups?

a) Organisations that attempt to oppose government policies
b) Organisations that attempt to influence government policies
c) Organisations that attempt to reject government policies
d) None of the above
15. Analyze the information given below considering one of the following correct
options.

Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive
and judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different
organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a
separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ
checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions.

a) Horizontal distribution of power b) Vertical division of power

c) Union Government d) Community Government 1

16. Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.

Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana. It has
borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg. It has a population of a
little over one crore, about half the population of Haryana. The ETHNIC composition of
this small country is very complex. Of the country’s total population, 59 percent lives in
the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language. Another 40 percent people live in the
4
SS-Ch-5A
 Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining one percent of the Belgians speak German.
In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak French while 20 percent are Dutch
speaking.

Sri Lanka is an island nation, just a few kilometres off the southern coast of Tamil Nadu.
It has about two crore people, about the same as in Haryana. Like other nations in the
South Asia region. Sri Lanka has a diverse population. The major social groups are the
Sinhala-speakers (74 percent) and the Tamil-speakers (18 percent). Among Tamils there
are two sub-groups. Tamil natives of the country are called ‘Sri Lankan Tamils’ (13 percent).

i) Why is the Ethnic composition of Belgium complex or unique? 2

ii) Who are Sri Lankan Tamils? 1

iii) What were the consequences of the conflict between Sinhalas and Tamils? 1

17. Consider the following statements about the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka? 1

A) Major social groups are the Sinhala - speaking (74%) and Tamil - speaking (18%)?

B) Among the Tamils, there are two sub-groups, Sri Lankan Tamils and Indian Tamils.

C) There are about 7% Christians, who are both Tamil and Sinhala.

D) Most of the Sinhala-speaking are Hindus or Muslims and most of the Tamil-speaking
are Buddhists.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) A, B, C b) A, B, D c) B, C, D d) A, B, C, D

SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

18. In modern democracies, power is often shared among different organs of the government.
Explain. 3

19. How can power be shared among governments at different levels? Explain. 3

20. Describe any three majoritarian measures adopted by the Sri Lankan Government to establish
Sinhala supremacy. 5
OR

How is the system of checks and balances maintained among the different organs of the
government?

21. Compare the different ways in which the Belgians and the Sri Lankans have dealt with the
problem of cultural diversity. 5

OR

Explain how Belgium was able to solve its ethnic problem.

4
SS-Ch-5A
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

POWER SHARING Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another name for which one of the following power-
sharing arrangements
a) Power sharing among different social groups
b) Vertical division of power or power shared among different levels of government
c) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government
d) Power sharing in the form of political parties, pressure groups and governments
2. Reservation to weaker section and community government are the example of
a) Power sharing between different organs of the government
b) Power sharing among different social group
c) Power sharing among Political parties, pressure groups and movements
d) All the above
3. Match the list I with II and select the correct answer using the codes below in the
lists.

List I List II

1) Federalism a) Power shared by different social groups

2) Coalition government b) When power is taken away from central

& state government and given to local
government

3) Community government c) A system of the government in which

power is divided between central authority
and various constituent units of the
country

4) Decentralisation d) Power shared by two or more political

parties.

a) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b b) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a

c) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b d) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - b

4. Which of the following is not one of the three organs of government powers are shared?

a) Legislature b) Bureaucracy

c) Executive d) Judiciary
6
5. Fill in the blanks

............... was started in Sri Lanka due to distrust between the two communities.

OR

................ has started power struggle demanding Separate Eelam in Sri Lanka.

6. Which prudential reasons made power sharing desirable?

OR
Why is horizontal power sharing also called a system of checks and balances?
7. Brussels presented a special problem : What was it?
a) Dutch-speaking people constituted a minority in the country, but a majority in the
capital
b) Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but a minority in the
capital
c) Other foreign languages were sleeping in
d) English was becoming dominant
8. Prudential reasons of power sharing stress on the facts that

A) It ensures the stability of political order

B) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups

C) It gives a fair share to minority

D) It is the very spirit of democracy

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) A, B b) A, C & D c) All are correct d) A, B & C

SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS

Assertion Reason Type questions
In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.
9. Assertion (A) : Sinhala was recognized as only official language of Sri Lanka.
Reason (R) : The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish the supremacy of
Sinhala community. 1
10. Assertion (A) : Belgium and Sri Lanka both faced ethical tension among different
communities.
Reason (R) : Both the countries resolved the conflict by power sharing arrangement
which gave equal representation to all the communities. 1
7 SS-Ch-5B
11. Assertion (A) : In modern democracies, power is often shared among different organs
of the government.
Reason (R) : The legislature is concerned with passing the laws, controlling the
finance of the state and delivering on matter of public importance. 1
12. Assertion (A) : Sharing of powers makes a country more powerful and united.
Reason (R) : Power sharing accommodates diverse group. 1
13. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows.
Government measures, coming one after the other, gradually increased the feeling of
alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major political parties
led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders were sensitive to their language and culture. They felt
that the constitution between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over time. The
Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official
language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and
jobs. But their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was
repeatedly denied. By 1980s several political organisations were formed demanding an
independent Tamil Eelam (state) in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka. The distrust
between the two communities turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into a CIVIL
WAR. As a result thousands of people of both the communities have been killed. Many
families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many more lost their livelihoods.
i) What is not the geographical location of Sri Lanka as compared to India?
a) Sri Lanka is an island nation
b) It is about 20 kms from Rameshwaram, the Southern coast of Tamil Nadu
c) It lies in the Indian Ocean d) None of the above 4×1=4
ii) What happened when demand of Tamils, for more autonomy, repeatedly denied by
the government?
a) It soon turned into a Civil War. Thousands of people of both the communities
have been killed.
b) Many became refugees.
c) It improved the social, cultural and economic life of the country.
d) Both a and b.
iii) Which of the following was not a provision of the Act of 1956 passed in Sri Lanka?
a) It recognises Sinhala as the only official language.
b) The government followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants.
c) A new constitution stipulated that the state should protect and foster Buddhism.
d) Provincial autonomy was given to Tamils.
iv) The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for
a) For regional autonomy
b) Equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs
8 SS-Ch-5B
 c) The recognition of Tamils as an official language
d) All of the above
14. Read the passage and answer the questions that follows.

Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala
community sought to secured dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As
a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN
measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. In 1956, an Act was passed to recognize Sinhala
as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil. The governments followed preferential
policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs. A
new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism.

Which of the following are the ethnic communities of Sri Lanka?

a) Indian Tamils and Sri Lankan Tamils b) Tamils, Buddhists, Hindus

c) Indian Tamils, Sri Lankan Tamils and Buddhists

d) Sinhala speakers, Sri Lankan Tamils and Indian Tamils 1

OR

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.

The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided political
power. For a long time it was believed that all power of a government must reside in one
person or group of persons located at one place. It was felt that if the power to decide is
displaced, it would not be possible to take quick decisions and to enforce them. But these
notions have changed with the emergence of democracy. One basic principle of democracy
is that people are the source of all political power. In a democracy, people rule themselves
through institutions of self-government. In a good democratic government, due respect is
given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society. Everyone has a voice in the
shaping of public policies. Therefore, it follows that in a democracy political forms of
power-sharing should be distributed among as many citizens as possible.

Which of the following options describes a good democratic system?

a) Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies

b) Power to take quick decision and to enforce them

c) All power resides in one person

d) Power is shared among central and state governments

15. Analyze the information given below considering one of the following correct
options.

The Belgian leaders took a different path. They recognised the existence of regional
differences and cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their
constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to
live together within the same country. The arrangement they worked out is different from
any other country and is very innovative. Apart from the Ventral and the State Government,
9 SS-Ch-5B
 there is a third kind of government. This ‘community government’ is elected by people
belonging to one language community - Dutch, French and German-speaking - no matter
where they live.

a) People belonging to one language community only

b) By the leader of Belgium

c) The citizens of the whole country d) The community leaders of the Belgium 1

16. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.

The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an
official language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education
and jobs. But their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was
repeatedly denied. By 1980s several political organisations were formed demanding an
independent Tamil Eelam (state) in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka.

The distrust between the two communities turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned
into a CIVIL WAR. As a result thousands of people of both the communities have been
killed. Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many more lost
their livelihoods. But the civil war has caused a terrible setback to the social, cultural and
economic life of the country.

i) Who were the Indian Tamils? 1

ii) What were the reasons for the distrust between the Sinhalas and Tamils? 2

iii) What were the results of distrust between Sinhalas and Tamils? 1

17. Apart from the Central and the State Government, there is a third kind of government ie.
community government which is elected by people belonging to one language community-
Dutch, French and German - speaking. What kind of power sharing is this? 1

a) Power-sharing among different levels b) Power-sharing among different organs

c) Power-sharing among social groups d) Power-sharing among community groups

SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
18. Explain how power is shared among different organs of the government. 3

19. “Sharing of powers makes a country more powerful and united.” Do you agree with this
statement and why? 3

20. How have Belgium and Sri Lanka dealt with question of power sharing differently? 5
OR
Give reasons why power sharing is desirable.
21. Explain the four forms of Power Sharing with examples.
5 OR

What were the reasons for the alienation of Sri Lankan Tamils? What was the effect of
this on the country?

10 SS-Ch-5B
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

FOREST AND WILDLIFE Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. Which one of the following is an example of endemic species?

a) Nicobar Pigeon b) Asiatic Buffalo
c) Horn Bill d) Black buck
2. Which one of the following belongs to Vulnerable Species?
a) Black buck b) Crocodile
c) Indian rhino d) Blue sheep
3. Which one of the following types of species are known as the extinct species?
a) Species whose population levels are normal
b) Whose population has been declined
c) Species with small population d) Species which are not found
4. Fill in the blanks
Forest and waste lands belonging to both private individuals and government are known
as ................
OR
Species found in isolated places only are called ...................
5. Match the following animals with their category of existence.

Column A Column B

i) Black buck a) Rare

ii) Asiatic elephant b) Endangered

iii) Andaman wild pig c) Vulnerable

iv) Himalayan brown bear d) Endemic

a) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a b) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d
a) i - b, ii - d, iii - a, iv - c a) i - d, ii - a, iii - c, iv - b
6. Which of these statements is not a valid reason for the depletion of flora and fauna?
a) Agricultural expansion b) Large-scale developmental projects
c) Grazing and fuel wood collection d) Rapid industrialisation and urbanisation
7. Which one of the following statements is not true with regard to depletion of flora and
fauna?
1
 a) Land required for housing b) Agricultural expansion
c) Mining activities d) Shifting agriculture
8. What can ensure fodder supply and fuel wood supply in rural areas?

OR

What does afforestation lead to?

SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS

Assertion Reason Type questions
In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.
9. Assertion (A) : Forests plays a key role in the ecological system.
Reason (R) : Forest are the primary producers on which all other living beings
depend. 1
10. Assertion (A) : Depletion of forests causes a lot of danger.
Reason (R) : Forests are vital for the quality of life and environment. 1
11. Assertion (A) : Himalayan Yew is a medicinal plant.
Reason (R) : It has healing qualities. 1
12. Assertion (A) : Tiger population is not on the verge of extinction.
Reason (R) : Tiger population in forests is increasing rapidly day by day. 1
13. Assertion (A) : The tree is a peculiar organism of unlimited kindness.
Reason (R) : Trees are living organisms which makes no demands for its
sustenance, and extends generously the products of its life activity. 1

14. Read the passage and answer the questions that follows.

Conservation in the background of rapid decline in wildlife population and forestry has
become essential. But why do we need to conserve our forests and wildlife? Conservation
preserves the ecological diversity and our life support systems - water, air and soil. It also
preserves the genetic diversity of plants and animals for better growth of species and
breeding. For example, in agriculture, we are still dependent on traditional crop varieties.
Fisheries too are heavily dependent on the maintenance of aquatic biodiversity.

In the 1960s and 1970s, conservationists demanded a national wildlife protection

programme. The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented in 1972, with various
provisions for protecting habitats. An all-India list of protected species was also published.

The thrust of the programme was towards protecting the remaining population of certain
endangered species by banning hunting giving legal protection to their habitats, and

2 SS-Ch-4A
 restricting trade in wildlife. Subsequently, central and many state governments established
national parks and wildlife sanctuaries . The central government also announced several
projects for protecting specific animals, which were gravely threatened, including the
tiger, the one-horned rhinoceros, the Kashmir stag or hangul, three types of crocodiles -
fresh water crocodile, saltwater crocodile and the Gharial, the Asiatic lion, and others.
Most recently, the Indian elephant, black buck (chinkara), the great Indian bustard (godawan)
and the snow leopard, etc. have been given full or partial legal protection against hunting
and trade throughout India.

i) Which species of animals have no legal protection against hunting and trade throughout
India? 4×1=4

a) Cattle b) One horned rhinoceros

c) Asiatic lion d) Snow leopard

ii) Which of the following is NOT a reason for depletion of forests?

a) Mining b) Multi-purpose river valley projects

c) Grazing d) Creation of shelter belts

iii) Which is not the wildlife sanctuary?

a) Simplipal b) Ethunagaram c) Banbasa d) Ranthambore

iv) When was Project Tiger launched?

a) In 1973 b) In 1972 c) In 1983 d) In 1974

15. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows.

Some estimates suggest that at least 10 percent of India’s recorded wild flora and 20
percent of its mammals are on the threatened list. Many of these would now be categorised
as ‘critical’. that is on the verge of extinction like the cheetah, pink-headed duck, mountain
quail, forest spotted owlet, and plants like madhuca insignis (a wild variety of mahua) and
hubbardia heptaneuron, (a species of grass). In fact, no one can say how many species
may have already been lost. Today, we only talk of the larger and more visible animals
and plants that have become extinct but what about smaller animals like insects and
plants?

The destruction of forests and wildlife is not just a biological issue. The biological loss is
strongly correlated with the loss of cultural diversity. Such losses have increasingly
marginalised and impoverished many indigenous and other forest-dependent communities,
who directly depend on various components of the forest and wildlife for food, drink,
medicine, culture, spirituality, etc.

i) Name some of the species which are on the verge of extinction. 1

ii) What is ‘madhuca insignais’? 1

iii) How is the biological loss strongly correlated with the loss of cultural diversity? 2

3 SS-Ch-4A
16. Analyse the information given below choose one of the following correct options.

These are species which are in danger of extinction. The survival of such species is
difficult if the negative factors that have led to a decline in their population continue to
operate. The examples of such species are black buck, crocodile. Indian wild ass, Indian
rhino, lion tailed macaque, sangai (browanter deer in Manipur), etc.

a) Vulnerable species b) Endangered species

c) Extinct species d) Rare species 1

OR

Forests are regarded as most valuable as for as the conservation of forests and wildlife
resources. Analyze the information given below considering one of the following correct
options.

a) Reserved forests b) Protected forests

c) Unclassed forests d) Distribution of forests

17. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.

These are species which are only found in some particular areas usually isolated by
natural or geographical barriers. Examples of such species are the Andaman teal, Nicobar
pigeon. Andaman wild pig, mithun in Arunachal Pradesh.

Endemic species refers to the species which are 1

a) Extinct b) Declining

c) Confined to specific areas only d) Not found after search

18. “The tree is a cecullar organism of unlimited kindness and benevolence and makes n
demand for its sustenance, and extends generously the products of its life activity. It
affords protection to all beings, offering shade even to the exemen who destroy it”. Read
the above statement and answer the following questions?

i) Who quoted this statement? 1

ii) Describe the generous nature of the tree? 1

SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
19. “Grazing and fuel-wood collection are not responsible for deforestation in India”. Support
the statement with suitable reasons. 3

20. Analyse the reasons for the decline in India’s bio-diversity due to human activities. 5
OR
Describe the different types of plant and animal spcies found in India.

21. Why do we need to conserve our forests and wildlife resources? Explain any two steps
taken by the communities to protect our forest and wildlife resources. 5

22. Distinguish between normal species and endangered species. Write one example of each
category. 3
4 SS-Ch-4A
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

FOREST AND WILDLIFE Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal has been threatened about the loss of habitat of
many species due to
a) Industrial development b) Agricultural expansion
c) Port activities d) Mining
2. Which one of the following is NOT considered a sacred tree in India?
a) Peepal b) Neem c) Banyan d) Mango
3. Which of the following is NOT a reason for depletion of forests?
a) Mining b) Multi-purpose river valley projects
c) Grazing d) Creation of shelter belts
4. Fill in the blanks
............... is the name given to the forests of God and Goddesses.
OR
The state having highest percentage of protected forests is ..................
5. Match the following items given in Column A with those in column B.

Column A Column B

i) Madhya Pradesh a) Blue sheep

ii) Corbett-National Park b) West Bengal

iii) Sunderban National Park c) Uttarakhand

iv) Vulnerable Species d) Permanent forests

a) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a b) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
c) i - b, ii - c, iii - a, iv - d a) i - a, ii - c, iii - d, iv - b
6. Which of the following conservation strategies does not directly involve community
participation?
a) Joint Forest Management b) Beej Bachao Andolan
c) Chipko Movement d) Demarcation of Wildlife sanctuaries
7. The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal has been threatened about the loss of habitat of
many species due to
a) Land required for housing b) Agricultural expansion
c) Port activities d) Mining
6
8. What are the major disadvantages of deforestation?
OR
What can ensure fodder supply and fuel wood supply in rural areas?
SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS
Assertion Reason Type questions
In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.
9. Assertion (A) : Neglect of our environment has led to the destruction and extinction of
many species of animals and plant life.
Reason (R) : Decreasing Forest cover area is a major reason of destruction of
species. 1
10. Assertion (A) : Large-scale development projects have also contributed significantly
to the loss of forests.
Reason (R) : Large scale development projects doesn’t inundate hectares of forest.
1
11. Assertion (A) : We need to conserve our forests and wildlife.
Reason (R) : Rapid decline in wildlife population and forestry has been observed.1
12. Assertion (A) : Destruction of forests and wildlife resulted into the loss of cultural
diversity.
Reason (R) : The conservation of forests and wildlife is essential to provide a better
quality of life. 1
13. Assertion (A) : The decline in India’s bio-diversity due to human activities.
Reason (R) : Over population is another cause especially in third world countries.1
14. Read the passage and answer the questions that follows.
Reserved and protected forests are also referred ti as permanent forests estates
maintained for the purpose of producing timber and other forest produces and for protective
reasons. Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under permanent forests, constitution 75
percent of its total forests area. Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Kerala,
Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, and Maharashtra have large percentages of reserved forests
of its total forest area whereas Bihar, Hariyana, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha and
Rajasthan have a bulk of it under protected forests. All North-eastern states and parts of
Gujarat have very high percentage of their forests as unclassed forests managed by local
communities.
i) Reserved Forests : More than half of the total forest land has been declared reserved
forests. Reserved forests are regarded as the most valuable as far as the conservation
of forest and wildlife resources are concerned.
7 SS-Ch-4B
 ii) Protected Forests: Almost one-third of the total forest area is protected forest, as
declared by the Forest Department. This forest land are protected from any further
depletion.

iii) Unclassed Forests: These are other forests and wastelands belonging to both
government and private individuals and communities.

i) Forest land protected from any further depletion is called

a) Reserved forest b) Protected forest

c) Unclassed forest d) None of these

ii) Which state has the largest area under permanent forest?

a) Tamil Nadu b) Madhya Pradesh c) Maharashtra d) Jammu & Kashmir

iii) How much of the total forest area of India comes under the protected forest?

a) Two third b) One third c) One fourth d) Three fourth

iv) Forests and wastelands belonging to both private individuals and government as

a) Sacred groves b) Reserved forests

c) Protected forests d) Unclassed forests

15. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows.

The conservation projects are now focusing on biodiversity rather than on a few of its
components. There is now a more intensive search for different conservation measures,
Increasingly, even insects are beginning to find a place in conservation planning. In the
notification under Wildlife Act of 1980 and 1986, several hundred butterflies, moths,
beetless, and one dragonfly have been added to the list of protected species.

The clear lesson from the dynamics of both environmental destruction and reconstruction
in India is that local communities everywhere have to be involved in some kind of natural
resource management. But there is still a long way to go before local communities are at
the centre stage in decision-making. Accept only those economic or developmental
activities, that are people centric, environment-friendly and economically rewarding.

i) Why do we need to conserve our forests and wildlife? 2

ii) What do you mean by Extinct Species? 1

iii) How have human activities affected the depletion of flora and fauna? Explain. 1

16. Analyse the information given below, choose one of the following correct options.

These are species whose population has declined to levels from where it is likely to move
into the endangered category in the near future if the negative factors continue to operate.
The examples of such species are blue sheep, Asiatic elephant, Gangetic dolphin etc.

a) Vulnerable species b) Extinct species

c) Rare species d) Endemic species

7 SS-Ch-4B
 OR

Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under permanent forests. Unclassed forests are
situated the north-eastern states of India and Gujarat. Mangrove forests are found in
Sundarban Delta and Deltas of east flowing rivers of the peninsular plateau. Analyze the
information given below considering one of the following correct options.

a) Protected forests b) Unclassed forests

c) Reserved forests d) Distribution forests

17. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.

Some estimates suggest that at least 10 percent of India’s recorded wild flora and 20
percent of its mammals are on the threatened list. Many of these would now be categorised
as ‘critical’, that is on the verge of extinction like the cheetah, pink-headed duck, mountain
quail, forest spotted owlet, and plants like madhuca insignis (a wild variety of mahua) and
hubbardia heptaneuron, (a species of grass). In fact, no one can say how many species
may have already been lost.

Flora and fauna categorised as critical means that they are 1

a) Not to be found after searches b) On the verge of extinction

c) Declining towards endangered category d) Normal for their survival

18. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

i) Which forests cover the least area? India 1

Forest Cover by Density Class (1999)
ii) Where are they mainly found? 1

SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

19. How does the participation of people play an important role in the conservation of forest s
and wildlife in our country? Explain with the help of five suitable examples. 3

20. Analyse the reasons for the decline in India’s bio-diversity due to human activities. 5

OR

Give three reasons why we need to save the bio-diversity of our planet.

21. Write the full form of IUCN? Mention four different types of species of flora and fauna as
per the classification given by IUCN. 5

22. What are extinct species? Describe any two factors that caused fearful depletion of bio-
diversity of India. 3
8 SS-Ch-4B
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

GENDER RELIGION AND CASTE Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. “Religion can never be separated from politics” is said by

a) BR Ambedkar b) GK Gokhale
c) Mahatma Gandhi d) Swami Vivekananda
2. Communal politics is based on the Idea that religion is the principal basis of
a) Social community b) Caste system
c) People d) None of the above
3. Communal politics is based on the idea of
a) Caste is the basis of social community
b) Religion and cast are the basis of social community
c) Religion is the basis of social community
d) None of the above
4. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists.

List I List II

a) Communalist i) A person who believes in equal rights and

opportunities for women and men.

b) Feminist ii) A person who says that religion is the principal

basis of community.

c) Secularist iii) A person who thinks that caste is the principal

basis of community.

d) Castiest iv) A person who does not discriminate against

others on the basis of religious beliefs.

a) a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv b) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii

c) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii d) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv

5. Read the following statements, choose correct option.

Assertion (A) : Equal Remuneration Act. 1976, provides that equal wages should be
paid for equal work, irrespective of gender and caste.

Reason (R) : Women are physically weak so they are righteously paid less than men.

a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
1
 b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.

c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.

6. Choose the correct option about matriarchal society

a) Educated society b) Male dominated society

c) Female dominated society d) Equal gender society

7. Consider the following statements on the meaning of communal politics. Communal politics
is based on the belief that:

A. One religion is superior to that of others.

B. People belonging to different religions can live together happily as equal citizens.

C. Followers of a particular religion constitute one community.

D. State power cannot be used to establish the domination of one religious group over
others.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

a) A, B, C and D b) A, B and D c) A and C d) B and D

8. Identify the statements which suggest that it is not politics that gets caste-ridden, it is the
caste that gets politicised.

A. When governments are formed, political parties take care that representatives of
different castes find a place in it.

B. Each caste group incorporates neighbouring castes which were earlier excluded.

C. Various caste groups enter into a coalition with other castes.

D. Political parties and candidates in elections make appeals to caste sentiments.

a) A, B and D b) B, C and D c) B and C d) A and D

9. Read the information given below choose one of the following correct options.
Castes and caste system in modern India have undergone great changes. With economic
development, large scale urbanisation , growth of literacy and education, occupational
mobility and the weakening of the position of landlords in the villages, the old notions of
caste hierarchy are breaking down.

a) Caste formation b) Caste discrimination

c) Caste hierarchy d) Pyramid

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. Why did the Muslim Ulama in India want to introduce religious reforms in Islam?
OR
Describe any two advantages of the political expression of caste differences.
11. How does caste get politicised? Give two points.
2 SS-Ch-Gender............ A
 SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3×3=9
12. How has women participation been increased in the Indian politics? Give a comparative
analysis of early and modern period.
13. Suggest the steps to improve the social status of women in Indian society. 3

OR

How do ideas, ideals and values play a role in politics?

14. “Caste has not still disappeared from contemporary India”. Write any three examples to
justify the statement.
SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10
15. Describe any five features of the caste system prevailing in India. 5

OR

Define communalism as ideology. Explain the forms of communalism in politics.

16. In what ways does politics influence caste system?

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

17. Read the passage below and answer the questions.

Caste plays different kinds of roles in politics. In some situations, expression of caste
differences in politics given many disadvantaged communities the space to demand their
share of power. In this sense-caste politics has helped people from Dalits and OBC castes
to gain better access to decision making. Several political and non-political organisations
have been demanding and agitating for an end to discrimination against particular castes,
for more dignity and more access to land, resources and opportunities.

i) State any one form in which politics influence caste system. 1

ii) How does caste affect politics? Give one example. 2

iii) Name some social reformers who advocated to establish a society in which caste
inequalities are absent. 1

18. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Women in different parts of the world organised and agitated for equal rights. There were
agitations in different countries for the extension of voting rights to women. These agitations
demanded enhancing the political and legal status of women and improving their
educational and career opportunities. More radical women’s movements aimed at equality
in personal and family life as well. These movements are called FEMINIST movements.

i) Who is a Feminist? 1

ii) What is the position of women in Indian politics? 1

iii) What are the main demands in the world? 2

3 SS-Ch-Gender............ A
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

GENDER RELIGION AND CASTE Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Which social division is unique to India?

a) Economic division b) Caste division
c) Racial division d) Religious division
2. The hierarchical unequal roles assigned to men and women by the society is known as
a) sex ratio b) equal wages ratio
c) gender division d) male ratio
3. Which factor does not weaken the caste inequalities?
a) Urbanisation b) Literacy growth
c) Education d) Politics
4. Match the columns.

Column A Column B

a) Secularist i) Number of girl, children per thousand boys in a

given period.

b) Communalist ii) Laws that dead with family related matters

such as marriages divorce, etc.

c) Family laws iii) A person who does not discriminate others on

the basis of religious beliefs.

d) Child sex ratio iv) A person who says that

a) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv b) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

c) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii d) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv

5. Which among the following statements about India’s Constitution is wrong? It
a) Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion
b) Gives official status to one religion
c) Provides to all individuals freedom to profess any religion
d) Ensures equality of citizens within religious communities

6. Read the following statements, choose correct option.

Assertion (A) : Sometimes a caste group becomes vote bank for a party.
Reason (R) : Selecting the candidate from same caste helps in ensuring better
governance.
4
 a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) If A is true but R is false. d) If both A and R are false.

7. “Sexual Division of labour signifies, that

i. Gender division emphasises division on the basis of nature of work.

ii. Division between men and women.
iii. Caste is the basis of Gender Division.
iv. Work decides the division between men and women.
a) i, iii and iv b) i, ii and iv c) i and iii d) iv and i

8. Identify two reasons that state that caste alone cannot determine elections in India.

A. No party wins the votes of all the voters of a caste or community.

B. Some political parties are known to favour some castes and are seen as their
representatives.

C. No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one single caste.

D. Mobilising and securing political support has brought new consciousness among the
lower castes.

a) A and C b) A and D c) B and C d) B and D

9. Which among the following statements about India’s Constitution is wrong It?

a) prohibit discrimination on grounds of religion.

b) gives official status to one religion.

c) provides to all individuals freedom to profess any religion.

d) ensures equality of citizens within religious communities.

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. Define Feminist Movements.

OR

How does religion influence the political set up in our country?

11. How can communalism pose a great threat to Indian democracy?

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3×3=9

12. What are the basis of communalism?

13. State any four provisions of the Indian Constitution which makes it a secular state.

OR

How is casteism harmful to the democratic ideals?

5 SS-Ch-Gender.......... B
14. Explain the impact of caste system on Indian democracy?

SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

15. Explain the different aspects of life in which women are discriminated or disadvantaged
in India.

OR

Describe three advantages and two disadvantages of the political expression of caste
differences.

16. “Caste (system) and politics in India cannot be separated”. Justify.

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

17. Read the passage below and answer the questions.

Secularism is not just an ideology of some parties of persons. This idea constitutes one
of the foundations of our country. Communalism should not be seen as a threat to some
people in India. It threatens the very idea of India. That is why communalism needs to be
combated. A secular Constitution like ours is necessary but not sufficient to combat
communalism. Communal prejudices and propaganda need to be countered in everyday
life and religion based mobilisation needs to be countered in the arena of politics.

i) What is secularism? 1

ii) What constitutional provisions declare India to be a secular state? 2

iii) Why do we need to combat communalism? 1

18. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of women is housework
and bringing up children. This is reflected in a SEXUAL DIVISION OF LABOUR in most
families: women do all work inside the home such as cooking, cleaning, washing clothes,
tailoring, looking after children, etc. and men do all the work outside the home. It is not
that men cannot do housework; they simply think that it is for women to attend to these
things. When these jobs are paid for, men are ready to take up these works. Most tailors
or cooks in hotels are men.

i) What do you mean by ‘sexual division of labour’? 1

ii) What is the result of the division of labour? 2

iii) Suggest one way by which women can be empowered. 1

6 SS-Ch-Gender.......... B
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

GLOBALIZATION AND THE INDIAN ECONOMY Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Which organisation supports liberalisation of foreign trade and investments in India?

a) International Labour Organisation (ILO) b) World Bank

c) World Trade Organisation (WTO) d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

2. Cheaper imports. inadequate investment in infrastructure leads to

a) Slowdown in agricultural sector

b) Replace of the demand for domestic production

c) Slowdown in industrial sector d) All of the above

3. Match the following.

A B

a. Higher standard of living i. Trade Barriers

b. Process of rapid inter connection ii. Mahindra and Mahindra

between countries

c. Ford Motors iii. Globalisation

d. Imposition of tax on the import of iv. Well-off consumers

goods from foreign countries

a) a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv b) a - iv, b - i, c - iii, d - ii

c) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i d) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii

4. Arrange the following in the correct sequence.

i) WTO establishes rules regarding international trade for all countries

ii) WTO is started at the initiative of developed countries

iii) Developing countries like India have removed trade barriers

iv) In practice, trade between countries is not obeyed.

a) iv - i, iii, ii b) iii - iv - i - ii c) ii - i - iv - iii d) i - ii - iii - iv

5. Read the information given below and select the correct option.

MNCs have increased their investments in India over the past 20 years, which means
investing in India has been beneficial for them. MNCs have been interested in industries
1
 such as cell phones, automobiles, electronics, soft drinks, fast food or services such as
banking in urban areas.

a) These products have a large number of well-off buyers

b) The MNCs get costly labours

c) The government impose trade barriers

d) MNCs prefer dictatorship

6. Assertion (A) : Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond
the domestic markets.

Reason (R) : Foreign trade expands the choice of goods beyond what is domestically
produced.

a) If Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

b) If Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.

c) If Assertion is true, but reason is false. d) If Both assertion and reason are false.

7. Which of the following statement / statements is /are correct to globalisation?

i) It is integrating the world economies

ii) MNC, have the great role in globalisation

iii) It provides benefits to all sections equally

iv) In India, globalisation era exhibits appreciable growth of agricultural sector.

a) i), ii) and (iii) b) i) and ii) c) i) and iv) d) i), ii), iii) and iv)

8. The past two decades of globalisation have seen rapid movements in

a) Goods, services and people between countries

b) Goods, services and investments between countries

c) Goods, investments and people between countries

d) Goods and investments between countries

9. Choose the most appropriate option.

Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions.

a) of all the people b) of people in the developed countries

c) of workers in the developing countries d) none of the above

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. Why did the Indian government remove barriers to a large extent on foreign trade and
foreign investment?

2 SS-Ch-Globalisation and.... A
11. Why do MNCs set up their offices and factories in those regions where they get cheap
labour and other resources?

OR

What is the most common route of investment by MNCs?

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3×3=9

12. ‘Barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent in India
since 1991.’ Justify the statement.

13. Why are foreign companies outsourcing certain part of their business in India?

OR

Do you think that globalisation has the power to integrate market across countries?

14. “The impact of globalisation has not been visualized uniformly among producers and
workers.” Support the statement with facts.

SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

15. Describe the contribution of technology in promoting the process of globalization.

16. Explain the role of MNCs in the globalisation process.

OR

How is the government of India trying to attract more foreign investment? Explain with
examples.

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Ford Motors, an American company, is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers
with production spread over 26 countries of the world. Ford Motors came to India in 1995
and spent Rs. 1700 crore to set up a large plant near Chennai. This was done in
collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks.
By the year 2004, Ford Motors was selling 27,000 cars in the Indian markets, while 24,000
cars were exported from India to South Africa, Mexico and Brazil. The company wants to
develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe.

i) Would you say Ford Motors is a MNC? Why? 1

ii) What is foreign investment ? How much did Ford Motors invest in India? 1

iii) By setting up their production plants in India, MNCs such as Ford Motors tap the
advantage not only of the large markets that countries such as India provide, but also
the lower costs of production. Explain the statement. 2

3 SS-Ch-Globalisation and.... A
18. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

We have seen that the liberalisation of foreign trade and investment in India was supported
by some very powerful international organisations. These organisations say that all barriers
to foreign trade and investment are harmful. There should be no barriers. Trade between
countries should ‘free’. All countries in the world should liberalise their policies.

Globalisation has also created new opportunities for companies providing services,
particularly those involving IT. The Indian company producing a magazine for the London
based company and call centres are some examples. Besides, a host of services such
as data entry, according, administrative tasks, engineering are now being done cheaply in
countries such as India are exported to the developed countries.

i) What is Liberalisation? 1

ii) What role can the government play to make globalisation more fair? 2

iii) What has been the impact of globalisation? 1

4 SS-Ch-Globalisation and.... A
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

GLOBALIZATION AND THE INDIAN ECONOMY Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Which of the following sectors has benefitted least because of globalisation in India?
a) Agriculture sector b) Industrial sector
c) Service sector d) Mining sector

2. Which of the following organisations lays stress on liberalisation of foreign trade and
foreign investment?
a) International Labour Organisation b) International Monetary Fund

c) World Health Organisation d) World Trade Organisation

3. Match the following.

A B
a. MNCs buy at cheap rates from i. Garments, foot wear
small producers

b. Quotes and taxes on imports ii. Call centres

are used to regulate

c. Indian companies who have iii. Tata motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy

invested abroad

d. It has helped in spreading of iv. Trade barriers

production of services

a) a - i, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii b) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i

c) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii d) a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv
4. Choose the incorrect option from the following.

List I List II

a) Investment made by MNCs i. Foreign investment

b) Infosys ii. MNC

c) Close to the markets of US and Europe iii. Mexico and Eastern Europe

d) Special Export Zone iv. SEZ

5. Read the information given below and select the correct option.

Though WTO is supposed to allow free trade for all, in practice, it is seen that the developed
countries have unfairly retained trade barriers. On the other hand, WTO rules have forced
 the developing countries to remove trade barriers. An example of this is the current debate
on trade in agricultural products.

a) Trade and Commerce b) Agricultural products

c) Trade barriers d) World Trade Organisation

6. Assertion (A) : Globalisation is the process of rapid integration or interconnection

between countries.

Reason (R) : Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has
stimulated the globalisation process.

a) If Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

b) If Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.

c) If Assertion is true, but reason is false. d) If Both assertion and reason are false.

7. Choose the reason for which MNCs are attracted to India for investments.

a) India has educated English speaking people

b) India has skilled professionals

c) India has lot of natural resources d) All of the above

8. “The impact of globalisation has not been fair”. Who among the following people have not
benefitted from globalisation?

a) Well-off consumers b) Small producers and workers

c) Skilled and educated producers d) Large wealthy producers

9. Choose the most appropriate option.

The most common route for investment by MNCs in countries around the world is to

a) Set up new factories b) Buy existing local companies

c) From partnerships with local companies d) None of the above

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. Due to what reason are the latest models of different items available within our reach?
11. What are the main features of globalisation process?
OR
What changes have occurred in India due to the adaptation of the policy of liberalisation
and globalisation?

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3×3=9

12. “Technology has stimulated the globalisation process.” Support the statement with
examples.

6 SS-Ch-Globalisation and.... B
13. What is the aim of the WTO and why was it criticised?

OR

How far was globalisation of the Indian economy possible if liberalisation of foreign trade
and investment had not taken place?

14. Why did Ford Motors want to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its
other plants across the globe? Explain.

SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

15. Describe any five factors that promote MNCs to set up their production units in a particular
place.

16. “Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all and also ensure the benefits of
globalisation are shared better.” Support the statement.

OR

Describe the major problems created by globalisation for a large number of small producers
and workers.

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

17. Read the passage and answer the following questions.

As consumers in today’s world, some of us have a wide choice of goods and services
before us. The latest models of digital cameras, mobile phones and televisions made by
the leading manufacturers of the world are within our reach. Every season, new models
of automobiles can be seen on Indian roads. In general, MNCs set up production where it
is close to the markets; where there is skilled and unskilled labour available at low costs;
and where the availability of other factors of production is assured. In addition, MNCs
might look for government policies that look after their interests.

i) Explain the reason for the increase in choices in the passage. 1

ii) What are MNCs? 1

iii) What factors have led to the interlinking of production across countries? 2

18. Read the following passage answer the questions.

John did not expect that he would have to face a crisis in such a short period of his life as
industrialist. He took a loan from the bank to start his own company producing capacitors
in 2002 in Mysore an industrial town in Karnataka. Capacitors are used in many electronic
home appliances including tube lights, television etc. within three years, he was able to
expand production and had 20 workers working under him.

His struggle to run his company started when the government removed restrictions on
imports of capacitors as per its agreement at WTO in 2004. His main clients, the television
companies, used to buy different components including capacitors in bulk for the
7 SS-Ch-Globalisation and.... B
manufacturing of television sets. However, competition from the MNC brands forced the
Indian television companies to move into assembling activities for MNCs. Even when
some of them bought capacitors, they would prefer to import as the price of the imported
item was half the price charged by people like John.

Ravi now produces less than half the capacitors that he produced in the year 2000 and
has only seven workers working for him. Many of his friends in the same business in
Hyderabad and Chennai have closed their units.

i. Identify the idea high lighted in the above passage . 1

ii. What were the reasons for the closure of business of John's friends? 2

iii. Suggest some steps to support John's business. 1

8 SS-Ch-Globalisation and.... B
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

MONEY AND CREDIT Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Percentage of formal sector in total credit in India in poor household is

a) 15 b) 20 c) 70 d) 80
2. Banks can be considered as the mediator between the ...........and ...........
a) Borrowers, farmers b) Creditors, banks
c) Borrowers, debtors d) Depositors, borrowers
3. The problem of similar wants made exchange difficult, so a new medium of exchange
was developed known as
a) Capital b) Cost c) Rent d) Money
4. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.

Column A Column B

i) Financial Formal Institutions a) Payments which are to be made in future

ii) Financial informal b) The actual amount of investment

iii) Actual Investment c) Commercial banks, cooperatives, Rural Banks

iv) Deferredments d) Moneylenders, Landlords

a) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a b) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a
c) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b d) i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv - a
5. Which one of the following is not a limitation of the barter system?
a) lack of double coincidence of wants b) certain products can’t be divided
c) most often double coincidence of wants is not available
d) None of the above
6. Assertion (A) : Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with
themselves.
Reason (R) : Banks in India these days hold about 15 percent of their deposits as
cash.
a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) If A is true but R is false. d) If both A and R are false.
7. Read the information given below, and select the following correct options.

Megha has taken a loan of 6 lakhs from the bank to purchase a house. The annual
interest rate on the loan is 14 percent and the loan is to be repaid in 12 years in monthly

1
 instalments. Megha had to submit to the bank, documents showing her employment
records and salary before the bank agreed to give her the loan.
a) Interest on loan b) Formal source of loan
c) Informal source of loan d) None of the above
8. Which of the following is not a feature of Self Help Groups (SHGs)?
a) It consists of 15 - 20 members or more
b) Here members pool their savings which acts as collateral
c) Loans are given at nominal rate of interest
d) It is an informal source of credit
9. Anita has taken a loan of 5 lakh from the bank to establish her business. The annual
interest rate on the loan is 12% and the loan is to be repaid in 3 years in monthly instalments.
The bank took the papers of her home as collateral which will be returned to Anita only
when she repays the entire loan with interest. Analyse the loan information given above
considering one of the following correct options:
a) Mode of repayment b) Terms of credit
c) Interest on loans d) Deposit criteria
SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS 2×2=4
10. Why are most of the poor households deprived from the formal sector of loans?
OR
Why is the supervision of the functioning of the formal sources of loans necessary?
11. How does money act as a medium of exchange?
SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS 3×3=9
12. What is the impact of high cost of borrowing on the borrowers?
13. Why do banks and cooperative societies need to lend more? Explain.
14. “Poor households still depend on informal sector of credit”. Support the statement with
examples.
SECTION D - LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10
15. Mention any three points of distinction between formal sector loans and informal sector
loans.
OR
How are deposits with the bank beneficial for individual as well as for the nation? Explain
with examples.
16. Explain the need of credit for Indian farmers.

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.
There is no organisation which supervises the credit activities of lenders in the informal
sector. They can lend at whatever interest rate they choose. There is no one to stop them
from using unfair means to get their money back. Compared to the formal lenders, most

2 SS-Ch-Money and Credit A

 of the informal lenders charge a much higher interest on loans. Thus, the cost to the
borrower of informal loans is much higher.
i) Which are the two major sources of formal loan for rural household? 1
ii) Why are most of the poor households deprived from formal sector loans? 2
iii) List any two informal lenders. 1
18. Read the passage below and answer the following questions:
Interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement, and the mode of repayment
together comprise what is called the terms of credit. The terms of credit vary substantially
from one credit arrangement to another. They may vary depending on the nature of the
lender and the borrower.
If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell the asset or collateral
to obtain payment. Property such as land titles, deposits with banks, livestock are some
common examples of collateral used for borrowing.
i) What is Collateral? 1
ii) What is Credit?

iii) What are the main terms of credit?

3 SS-Ch-Money and Credit A

 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

MONEY AND CREDIT Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Modern forms of money include which of the following?

a) Currency notes and coins b) Cowrie shells and stones

c) Gold and silver coins d) Grains and cattle

2. A system where goods were exchanged without using money is known as

a) Goods system b) Exchange system

c) Barter system d) No-money system

3. The absence of managing authority is the feature of .............sector

a) Formal b) Informal c) Organised d) Both (a) and (b)

4. Match the following items given in Column B.

Column A Column B

i) Barter System a) Supervises the functioning of banks

ii) Debt-trap b) Commodity for commodity exchange system

iii) Formal sector loans c) Pushes the borrower into a situation from
which recovery is very painful

iv) Reserve Bank of India d) Loans from banks and cooperatives.

a) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a b) i - c, ii - b, iii - d, iv - a

c) i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c d) i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv - a

5. Which one of the following options describe ‘Collateral’?

a) Double coincidence of wants b) Certain products for barter

c) Trade in barter d) Asset as guarantee for loan

6. Assertion (A) : The modern currency is used as a medium of exchange; however, it

does not have a use of its own.

Reason (R) : Modern currency is easy to carry.

a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) If A is true but R is false. d) If both A and R are false.

4
7. Read the information given below, and select the following correct options.

Mahesh is a small farmer. He has taken a loan of 2 lakhs from the money leader to
meet the expenses of cultivation. The annual interest rate on the loan is very high, so he
is unable to repay the loan and he is caught in a debt. He has to sell a part of the land to
pay off the debt.

a) Terms of credit b) Interest on loan

c) Debt-trap d) Mode of repayment

8. A person can withdraw money by issuing a cheque. What is a cheque?

a) Loan taken by the bank b) Loan taken by the depositor from the bank

c) Paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount

d) Paper valid to withdraw money

9. Arrange the following in the correct sequence.

i) Transporting cloth to the workshop ii) Sale in shops and showrooms

iii) Spinning the yarn iv) Weaving the fabric

a) i, iv, iii, ii b) iii, iv, i, ii c) ii, iii, i, iv d) i, iii, ii, iv

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. Why do informal venders give loans to people not having any collateral?

OR

How do the deposits with the banks become their source of income?

11. Which are the two major sources of formal loan for rural households.

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS 3×3=9

12. Why do we need to expand formal sources of credit in India? Explain.

13. Explain the loan activities of banks?

OR

Name two formal and two informal sources of rural credit in India. State any two advantages
of formal sources of credit.

14. Examine any three situations in which credit helps in the development of agriculturists.

SECTION D - LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

15. Describe the importance of formal sources of credit in the economic development. 5

OR

Describe the bad effects of informal sources of credit on borrowers.

5 SS-Ch-Money and Credit B

16. Why the deposits in the banks are called demand deposits? What are the benefits of
deposits with the banks?

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS

17. Read the following information and answer the questions.

A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or service that he or
she might want. Thus everyone prefers to receive payments in money and then exchange
the money for things that they want. In a barter system where goods are directly exchanged
without the use of money. double coincidence of wants is an essential feature.

i) Why does everyone prefer to receive payments in money? 1

ii) What is meant by ‘double coincidence of wants’? Give example. 2

iii) Why is money called ‘medium of exchange’? 1

18. Read the passage below and answer the following questions:

What do the banks do with the deposits which they accept from the public? There is an
interesting mechanism at work here. Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits
as cash with themselves. For example, banks in India these days hold about 15 percent
of their deposits as cash.

i) Why do banks keep 15% of its deposits as cash? 1

ii) How do banks mediate between those who have surplus funds and those who are in
need of funds? 2

iii) What is the main source of income of the banks? 1

6 SS-Ch-Money and Credit B

 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

SECTORS OF THE INDIAN ECONOMY Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. The goods that are used as raw materials for further production are known by which
name?
a) Final goods b) Consumer gods
c) Material goods d) Intermediate goods
2. The task of collection of data in all the three sectors of the economy is done by which of
the following canalizations.
a) NSSO b) BPO c) KPO d) UNDP
3. The sectors are classified into public and private sectors on the basis of
a) Employment condition b) The nature of economic activities
c) Ownership of enterprises
d) Number of workers employed in the enterprise
4. Production of commodity, mostly through the nature process, is an activity in ..............
OR
In terms of ownership, enterprises owned by individuals are known as .............
5. Match the following.

COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2

1) Public Sector a) This sector transforms one good into another by

adding more value and utility.

2) Primary Sector b) This sector provides useful services for other sectors.

3) Secondary Sector c) This sector produces goods by exploiting natural

resources.

4) Tertiary Sector d) Is managed and controlled by the government to

provide facilities for the people.

a) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 - b b) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - c

c) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a d) 1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - d
6. Ramesh owns a medical shop. He managed the shop with the help of an assistant. Once
his son Mahesh finished his education, he also joined his father in the medical shop. Now
both Ramesh and Mahesh managed the medical shop with the help of the assistant.
Mahesh is
a) Unemployed b) Underemployed c) Over employed d) Employed
1
7. What was the most important sector of economic activities at the earliest stages of
development?
OR
How can problem of underemployment be reduced by the government?
8. In a village, 200 families are living. 65 families work on their own piece of land, 80 families
work on the field of other farmers, 15 families run their own shops and 40 families work in
a nearby factory to earn their livelihood. What percentage of villagers depend on the
secondary sector?

a) 20 b) 30 c) 25 d) 40

SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS

Assertion Reason Type questions
In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.
9. Assertion (A) : The service sector is gaining more importance in the global economy.
Reason (R) : As income levels decrease, certain sections of people start demanding
many more services like private schools, and hospitals, eating outlets,
tourism, etc. 1
10. Assertion (A) : A high average income is not indicative of the overall well-being or human
development in a country.
Reason (R) : Average income does not cover indicators like level of literacy rate,
health facilities and public facilities in a country. 1
11. Assertion (A) : In the public sector, the government owns most of the assets and
provides all the services.
Reason (R) : The purpose of the public sector is not first to earn profits but to promote
public welfare. 1
12. Assertion (A) : The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development
of service sector.
Reason (R) : As the primary and secondary sectors develop, the demand for
transport, storage structures, banks, insurance, etc., increases. 1
13. Read the extract given below and answer the questions.
The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year
provides the total production of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in the
three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It is
the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular
year. GDP shows how big the economy is. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP
2 SS-Ch-8A
 is undertaken by a central government ministry. This Ministry, with the help of various
government departments of all the Indian states and union territories, collects information
relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the
GDP. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the
primary sector. The secondary sector in which natural products are changed into other
forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. After primary
and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under the tertiary sector and
is different from the above two. These are activities that help in the development of the
primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves do not produce a good .
But they are an aid or a support for the production process.
i) The money value of all the final goods and services produced within a country during
a particular year is called 4×1=4
a) Gross domestic product b) Net domestic product
c) National product d) Production of secondary sector
ii) Which sector has emerged as the largest producing sector in India?
a) Primary sector b) Secondary sector
c) Tertiary sector d) Science and technology sector
iii) Information and communication technology is associated with
a) Primary sector b) Secondary sector
c) Tertiary sector d) None of the above
iv) Life insurance is an activity of the
a) Primary sector b) Secondary sector
c) Tertiary sector d) None of the above

14. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

More than half of the workers in the country are working in the primary sector, mainly in
agriculture, producing only a quarter of the GDP. In contrast to this, the secondary and
tertiary sectors produce four-fifth of the produce whereas they employ less than half the
people. Does this mean that the workers in agriculture are not producing as much as they
could? There are also people who are not employed at all. In what ways can one increase
employment for people?

The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after. But the employment
opportunities in the organised sector have been expanding very slowly. It is also common
to find many organised sector enterprises in the unorganised sector. They adopt such
strategies to evade taxes and refuse to follow laws that protect labourers. As a result, a
large number of workers are forced to enter the unorganised sector.

i) In spite of high employment in agriculture, its share in GDP is low. What does it
mean? 1

ii) How are workers exploited in an unorganised sector? 1

3 SS-Ch-8A
 iii) Who are the vulnerable people who need protection in unorganised sector in rural and
urban areas respectively? 2

15. Answer the following question by looking at the graph. What was the GDP of India in
2013-14?

a) 5,500,000 crores

b) 5,700,000 crores

c) 600,000 crores

d) 5,600,000 crores 1

16. Read the information given below and answer the questions that follows.

This sector is characterised by small and scattered units which are largely outside the
control of the government. There are rules and regulations but these are not followed.
Jobs here are low-paid and often not regular. There is no provision for overtime, paid
leave, holidays, leave due to sickness etc. Employment is not secure. People can be
asked to leave without any reason. When there is less work, such as during some seasons,
some people may be asked to leave. A lot also depends on the whims of the employer.
This sector includes a large number of people who are employed on their own doing
small jobs such as selling on the street or doing repair works. Similarly, farmers work on
their own and hire labourers as and when they require.

Choose the correct meaning of the organised sector. 1

a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular.

b) It is outside the control of the government.

c) Jobs are not regular d) It provides low salaries

17. Laxmi, owning about three hectares of unirrigated land dependent only on rain and growing
crops like jowar and arhar. All seven members of her family work in the field throughout
the year. You will see that everyone is working, none remains idle, but in actual fact their
labour effort gets divided. Each one is doing some work but no one is fully employed.
Analyze the information given above, considering one of the following correct options.

a) Underemployment b) Disguised unemployment

c) Seasonal unemployment d) Both (a) and (b) 1

OR

4
SS-Ch-8A
 There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources. For
example, the cultivation of cotton beekeeping, dairy farming, etc. Analyse the information
given above considering one of the following correct option

a) Tertiary sector b) Private sector

c) Secondary sector d) Primary sector

18. Read the source carefully and answer the following questions.

Another way of classifying economic activities into sectors could be on the basis of who
owns assets and is responsible for the delivery of services. In the public sector, the
government owns most of the assets and provides all the services. In the private sector,
ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hands of private individuals or
companies. Indian Post Office is an example of the public sector whereas companies
like Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO) or Reliance Industries Limited (RIL)
are privately owned.

Indian Railways is an example of public sector as

i) It is controlled and managed by the government

ii) It is a medium of public transport

Choose the correct option.

a) Both i & ii b) Only i c) Only ii d) Neither i not ii 1

SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

19. “The pace of change in the communication sector has been rapid in modern times.”
Support the statement with examples 3

20. ‘Tertiary sector is playing a significant role in the development of Indian Economy’. Justify
the statement. 5

OR

There has been a big change in the three sectors of economic activities, but a similar
shift has not taken place in the share of employment. Explain the above statement on the
basis of facts.

21. Explain any five differences between organised and unorganised sectors. 5

OR

“There are several things needed by the society as a whole”. In the light of this statement,
explain as private or the public sector and why?

22. Explain the problem of underemployment in the service sector in urban areas with
examples. 3

5 SS-Ch-8A
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

SECTORS OF THE INDIAN ECONOMY Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8×1=8

1. All economic activities that directly involve conversion of natural resources are classified
under
a) Secondary sector b) Primary sector
c) Tertiary sector d) Government sector
2. The sector in which the productive units are owned maintained and managed by
government.
a) organized sector b) Primary sector
c) Public sector d) Industrial sector
3. Which of the following workers are not very productive in tertiary sector?
a) Educated and trained professionals
b) Repair persons and daily wage earners
c) People in defence services
d) People working in health centres and hospitals
4. The type of unemployment in which more number of people work than actually needed is
known as .............
OR
Hidden unemployment is also called .................
5. Match the following.

COLUMN A COLUMN B

1) Under employment a) Secured job

2) Right to work b) There are more people in agriculture than

is necessary

3) Employment in organised sector c) No paid holidays

4) Employment to unorganised d) 100 days of assured employment

sector

a) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - d b) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a

c) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c d) 1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - c
6. Why is the tertiary sector becoming so important in India?
a) Government is taking the responsibility of providing the basic services.
6
 b) Development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services such
as transport, trade, storage and others.
c) In India maximum population is dependent on agriculture that’s why this sector
dominates.
d) As income level rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more services.
A) a, b, c and d are correct B) a, b and d are correct
C) b, c and d are correct D) a, b, c and d are correct
7. Name the sector in which the natural products are changed into other forms.
OR
When we produce goods by exploiting the natural resources, in which category of economic
sector such activities come?

8. Choose the improper group from the following.

a) Maruti Suzuki, Tata Motors and Volkswagen

b) Indian Railways, TSRTC, and Indian Airlines

c) Agriculture, Lumbering and Mining d) BSNL, Hero Honda and Amul Dairy

SECTION B - COMPTENCY BASED QUESTIONS

Assertion Reason Type questions

In the following questions there are two statements marked as Assertion Type (A) and
other is Reason Type (R). Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : Per Capita Income is calculated in US dollars.

Reason (R) : US dollar is not considered as the medium of international exchange. It
is accepted as a method of payment across the world. 1
10. Assertion (A) : Disguised unemployment is hidden in contrast to someone who does
not have a job and is clearly visible as unemployed. Everyone is working,
no one is fully employed.
Reason (R) : In actual fact, labour effort gets divided. 1
11. Assertion (A) : There is a need for protection and support of the workers in the
unorganized sector.
Reason (R) : The workers of unorganized sector are harassed due to strict
compliance with the government rules and regulations. 1
OR

7 SS-Ch-6B
 Assertion (A) : An individual who manufactures flour from wheat is engaged in primary
sector.
Reason (R) : When some process of manufacturing is used the product is a part of
secondary sector. 1
12. Read the source given below and answer the questions.
Total income is not such a useful measure. Since, countries have different populations,
comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Are people
in one country better off than others in a different country? Hence, we compare the average
income which is the total income of the country divided by its total population. The average
income is also called per capita income. In World Development Reports, brought out by
the World Bank, this criterion is used in classifying countries. Countries with per capita
income of US$ 12,056 per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries and those
with per capita income of US$ 955 or less are called low-income countries. India comes
in the category of low middle income countries because its per capita income in 2017
was just US$ 1820 per annum. The rich countries, excluding countries of Middle East and
certain other small countries, are generally called developed countries.
i) Countries with per capita income of US$ 12,056 per annum and above are called
................
a) Low income countries b) Rich countries
c) Small countries d) None of these 4 × 1= 4
ii) We compare the average income by ..................
a) Total income of the country divided by the total population
b) Total population multiplied by total income
c) Both A and B d) None of these
iii) The rich countries exclude the countries of ................
a) Middle East b) Certain other small countries
c) Srilanka d) All of these
iv) The average income is
a) Income per person b) Income per family
c) Income per month d) Income per earning person

13. Read the passage and answer the questions that follows.

There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources. Take,
for example, the cultivation of cotton. It takes place within a crop season. For the growth
of the cotton plant, we depend mainly, but not entirely, on natural factors like rainfall,
sunshine and climate. The product of this activity, cotton, is a natural product.

In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a central government

ministry. This Ministry, with the help of various government departments of all the Indian

8 SS-Ch-6B
 states and union territories, collects information relating to total volume of goods and
services and their prices and then estimates the GDP.

i) Why is cultivation of cotton considered an example of primary sector? 1

ii) What is another name of primary sector? Why? 1

iii) Who conducts the process of estimation of GDP? 2

14. Look at the graph below and answer the following question. What is the percentage of
share of the primary sector in the year 1973 - 74 and 2013 - 14?

a) 11% & 20%

b) 40% & 11%

c) 49% & 69%

d) 40% & 20% 1

15. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows.

The primary sector continues to be the largest employer even in the year 2000. The reason
for this is that not enough jobs are created in the secondary and tertiary sectors. More
than half of the workers in the country are working in the Primary sector, mainly in
agriculture, producing only a quarter of GDP. In contrast to this Secondary and Tertiary
sectors produce three-fourths of the produce though they employ less than half of the
people.

Production of a commodity through natural process is called. 1

a) Primary b) Secondary

c) Tertiary d) Information technology

16. Kamal works in rice mill jobs here are low-paid and often not regular. There is no provision
for overtime paid leave holidays, etc. Employment is not secure. People can be asked to
leave without any reason. Analyse the information given above, considering one of the
following correct option. 1

a) Organised sector b) Private sector

c) Unorganized sector d) Joint sector

OR

Rakesh works in a automobile unit in Gurugram. But he does not get any facility like
health insurance, medical leave provident fund, gratuity etc. Which sector he belongs to?

a) Public sector b) Organised sector

c) Private sector d) Unorganised sector

9 SS-Ch-6B
17. Read the following source and answer the questions.

There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources. Since
most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry, this sector
is also called agriculture and related sector. The secondary sector covers activities in
which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing.
This could be in a factory, a workshop or at home. For example, using cotton fibre from
the plant, we spin yarn and weave cloth. Since this sector gradually became associated
with the different kinds of industries that came up, it is also called as industrial sector.
After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under the
tertiary sector and are different from the above two. These are activities that help in the
development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do
not produce a good but they are an aid or support for the production process.
“After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under the
tertiary sector and is different from the above two”. Which of the following is incorrect
with regarding the given statement? 1

a) These activities do not produce a good by themselves

b) These activities help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors

c) These activities are an aid or support for the production process

d) These activities generate goods services rather than services

SECTION C - SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

19. “Tertiary sector activities help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors”.
Evaluate the statement. . 3

20. Describe any five provisions of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005. 5

OR

Describe the historical changes that have taken place in the sectors of the economy in
the developed countries.

21. ‘Public sector contributes to the economic development of India’. Justify the statement.5

OR

Compare the economic activities of the Private sector with that of the Public sector.

22. “Primary sector was the most important sector of economic activity at initial stages of
development”. Evaluate the statement. 5

10 SS-Ch-6B
 CLASS: X- NATIONALISM IN EUROPE Worksheet

FRÉDÉRIC SORRIEU AND HIS PAINTING:

1. In 1848, Frédéric Sorrieu, a French artist, prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world made
up of ‘democratic and social Republics’, as he called them.
2. The first print of the series, shows the peoples of Europe and America – men and women of all ages and social
classes – marching in a long train, and offering homage to the statue of Liberty as they pass by it.
3. Artists of the time of the French Revolution personified Liberty as a female figure – here you can recognise the
torch of Enlightenment she bears in one hand and the Charter of the Rights of Man in the other.
4. On the earth in the foreground of the image lie the shattered remains of the symbols of absolutist institutions.
5. In Sorrieu’s utopian vision, the peoples of the world are grouped as distinct nations, identified through their flags
and national costume.
6. Leading the procession, way past the statue of Liberty, are the United States and Switzerland, which by this time
were already nation-states.
Q: Describe the series of prints prepared by Frédéric Sorrieu.
Q: Explain Utopian vision of Frédéric Sorrieu.

NATIONALISM AN EMERGING FORCE:

1. During the nineteenth century, nationalism emerged as a force which brought about sweeping changes in the
political and mental world of Europe.
2. The end result of these changes was the emergence of the nation-state in place of the multi-national dynastic
empires of Europe.
3. The concept and practices of a modern state, in which a centralised power exercised sovereign control over a
clearly defined territory, had been developing over a long period of time in Europe.
4. But a nation-state was one in which the majority of its citizens, and not only its rulers, came to develop a sense
of common identity and shared history or descent.
5. This commonness did not exist from time immemorial; it was forged through struggles, through the actions of
leaders and the common people.
6. he diverse processes through which nation-states and nationalism came into being in nineteenth-century Europe.

Q: Define ‘modern states’ and ‘nation states’.

Q: Describe the major changes in 19th century Europe.

THE FRENCH REVOLUTION AND THE IDEA OF THE NATION:

1. The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the French Revolution led to the transfer of
sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens.
2. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its
destiny.
3. From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that could
create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.
4. The ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasized the notion of a united
community enjoying equal rights under a constitution. A new French flag ,the tricolour, was chosen to replace the
former royal standard.
5. The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly. New hymns
were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of the nation.
6. A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its
territory. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was
adopted.
7. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common
language of the nation.
8. The revolutionaries further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the
peoples of Europe from despotism, in other words to help other peoples of Europe to become nations.
9. When the news of the events in France reached the different cities of Europe, students and other members of
educated middle classes When the news of the events in France reached the different cities of Europe, students
and other members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin clubs.
10. Their activities and campaigns prepared the way for the French armies which moved into Holland, Belgium,
1 Prepared by:- Naresh Sharma Sir
 Switzerland and much of Italy in the 1790s.
11. With the outbreak of the revolutionary wars, the French armies began to carry the idea of nationalism abroad.

Q: Mention the major political and constitutional changes due to French Revolution in
Europe.
Q: How French revolution spread the ideas of nationalism throughout Europe?
Q: What steps were taken by French revolutionaries to create a sense of collective
belonging?
Q: Describe how French began to carry the idea of nationalism abroad.

NAPOLEONIC CODE:

1. Napoleon set about introducing many of the reforms that he had already introduced in France.
2. Through a return to monarchy Napoleon had, no doubt, destroyed democracy in France, but in the administrative
field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more rational and efficient.
3. The Civil Code of 1804 – usually known as the Napoleonic Code – did away with all privileges based on birth,
established equality before the law and secured the right to property.
4. This Code was exported to the regions under French control. In the Dutch Republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and
Germany, Napoleon simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from
serfdom and manorial dues.
5. In the towns too, guild restrictions were removed. Transport and communication systems were improved.
Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen enjoyed a new-found freedom.
6. Businessmen and small-scale producers of goods, in particular, began to realise that uniform laws, standardised
weights and measures, and a common national currency would facilitate the movement and exchange of goods
and capital from one region to another.
7. In the areas conquered, the reactions of the local populations to French rule were mixed.
8. Initially, in many places such as Holland and Switzerland, as well as in certain cities like Brussels, Mainz, Milan
and Warsaw, the French armies were welcomed as harbingers of liberty.
9. But the initial enthusiasm soon turned to hostility, as it became clear that the new administrative arrangements
did not go hand in hand with political freedom.
10. Increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the French armies required to conquer the rest of Europe,
all seemed to outweigh the advantages of the administrative changes.
(SUMMARY)
Napoleon (1769-1821)
1. Ruled France from 1799 to 1815.
2. Assumed absolute powers in 1799 by becoming the First Consul.
3. Civil Code/Napoleonic Code (1804)
4. Established equality before law.
5. Abolished all privileges based on birth.
6. Granted the right to property to French citizens.
7. Simplified administrative divisions.
8. Abolished feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom.
9. Removed restrictions on guilds in towns.
10. Improved transport and communication.
11. Militarily, Napoleon proved to be an oppressor for the people of the conquered territories. Taxation and
censorship were imposed and military services were made mandatory.

Q: Describe Napoleon as modernizer in Europe?

Q: How the conquered nations react to the new change?
Q: What outweigh the advantages of the administrative changes ?

THE MAKING OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE

1. Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons whose rulers had their
autonomous territories.
2. Eastern and Central Europe were under autocratic monarchies within the territories of which lived diverse
peoples. They did not see themselves as sharing a collective identity or a common culture.
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 3. Often, they even spoke different languages and belonged to different ethnic groups.
4. The Habsburg Empire that ruled over Austria-Hungary, for example, was a patchwork of many different regions
and peoples. It included the Alpine regions – the Tyrol, Austria and the Sudetenland – as well as Bohemia, where
the aristocracy was predominantly German-speaking.
5. It also included the Italian-speaking provinces of Lombardy and Venetia. In Hungary, half of the population
spoke Magyar while the other half spoke a variety of dialects.
6. In Galicia, the aristocracy spoke Polish. Besides these three dominant groups, there also lived within the
boundaries of the empire, a mass of subject peasant peoples – Bohemians and Slovaks to the north, Slovenes in
Carniola, Croats to the south, and Roumans to the east in Transylvania.

Q: Explain the political set up in Europe before emergence of ‘nation states’.

Q: Write a note on Habsburg empire.

THE ARISTOCRACY AND THE NEW MIDDLE CLASS

1. Socially and politically, a landed aristocracy was the dominant class on the continent.
2. The members of this class were united by a common way of life that cut across regional divisions.
3. They owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses. They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and
in high society.
4. Their families were often connected by ties of marriage. This powerful aristocracy was, however, numerically a
small group. The majority of the population was made up of the peasantry.
5. To the west, the bulk of the land was farmed by tenants and small owners, while in Eastern and Central Europe
the pattern of landholding was characterised by vast estates which were cultivated by serfs.
6. In Western and parts of Central Europe the growth of industrial production and trade meant the growth of towns
and the emergence of commercial classes whose existence was based on production for the market.
7. Industrialisation began in England in the second half of the eighteenth century, but in France and parts of the
German states it occurred only during the nineteenth century.
8. In its wake, new social groups came into being: a working-class population, and middle classes made up of
industrialists, businessmen and professionals.
9. In Central and Eastern Europe these groups were smaller in number till late nineteenth century.
10. It was among the educated, liberal middle classes that ideas of national unity following the abolition of
aristocratic privileges gained popularity.

Q: How were the aristocratic class socially united?

Q: What led to the emergence of the new middle class?

LIBERAL NATIONALISM:

1. Ideas of national unity in early-nineteenth-century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism.
2. The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free.
3. For the new middle classes liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law.
4. Politically, it emphasised the concept of government by consent. Since the French Revolution, liberalism had
stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and representative government through
parliament.
5. Nineteenth-century liberals also stressed the inviolability of private property.
6. In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed
restrictions on the movement of goods and capital. During the nineteenth century this was a strong demand of the
emerging middle classes.
7. In 1834, a customs union or zollverein was formed at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the German
states.
8. The union abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from over thirty to two.
9. The creation of a network of railways further stimulated mobility, harnessing economic interests to national
unification.
10. A wave of economic nationalism strengthened the wider nationalist sentiments growing at the time.

Q: Describe the concept of liberalism which developed in Europe in 19th century.

Q: What do you understand by economic liberalism?
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Q: Explain the conditions viewed as obstacles to economic growth of commercial classes in Europe.
Q: What was Zollverein? What were its wider implications?

SUFFRAGE RIGHT( THE RIGHT TO VOTE):

1. Equality before the law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage.
2. In revolutionary France, which marked the first political experiment in liberal democracy, the right to vote and to
get elected was granted exclusively to property-owning men.
3. Men without property and all women were excluded from political rights. Only for a brief period under the
Jacobins did all adult males enjoy suffrage.
4. Napoleonic Code went back to limited suffrage and reduced women to the status of a minor, subject to the
authority of fathers and husbands.
5. Throughout the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries women and non-propertied men organized opposition
movements demanding equal political rights.

Q: ‘Suffrage right was not applicable to all citizens in France alike. Explain.

A NEW CONSERVATISM AFTER 1815:

1. European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism.

2. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the
Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved.
3. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they
realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional
institutions like the monarchy.
4. It could make state power more effective and strong.
5. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could
strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe.
6. The Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe
during the Napoleonic wars.
7. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France
lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to
prevent French expansion in future.
8. the kingdom of the Netherlands, which included Belgium, was set up in the north and Genoa was added to
Piedmont in the south.
9. Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers, while Austria was given control of northern
Italy. But the German confederation of 39 states that had been set up by Napoleon was left untouched. In the east,
Russia was given part of Poland while Prussia was given a portion of Saxony. The main intention was to restore
the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon, and create a new conservative order in Europe.
10. Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were autocratic.
11. They did not tolerate criticism and dissent, and sought to curb activities that questioned the legitimacy of
autocratic governments.
12. Most of them imposed censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers, books, plays and songs and
reflected the ideas of liberty and free.

Q: What was the objective of Treaty of Vienna of 1815? Mention the outcomes of it.
Q: Describe the conservative regime set up in 1815 Europe?
Q: ‘European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism’. Explain.

THE AGE OF REVOLUTION:1830-1848:

1. As conservative regimes tried to consolidate their power, liberalism and nationalism came to be increasingly
associated with revolution in many regions of Europe such as the Italian and German states, the provinces of the
Ottoman Empire, Ireland and Poland
2. An event that mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe was the Greek war of
independence.
3. Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century. The growth of revolutionary nationalism
4 Prepared by:- Naresh Sharma Sir
 in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the Greeks which began in 1821.
4. Nationalists in Greece got support from other Greeks living in exile and also from many West Europeans who had
sympathies for ancient Greek culture.
5. Poets and artists lauded Greece as the cradle of European civilisation and mobilised public opinion to support its
struggle against a Muslim empire.
6. The English poet Lord Byron organised funds and later went to fight in the war, where he died of fever in 1824.
7. Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation .

Q: How revolution spread in many European regions after 1815?

Q: How did the Greek war of independence mobilized the nationalist feeling among the
educated class in Europe?

ROMANTICISM, A CULTURAL MOVEMENT WHICH SOUGHT TO DEVELOP A PARTICULAR FORM

OF NATIONALIST SENTIMENT:

1. Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation: art and poetry, stories and music helped
express and shape nationalist feelings.
2. Romanticism, a cultural movement which sought to develop a particular form of nationalist sentiment.
3. Romantic artists and poets generally criticised the glorification of reason and science and focused instead on
emotions, intuition and mystical feelings.
4. Their effort was to create a sense of a shared collective heritage, a common cultural past, as the basis of a nation.
5. Other Romantics such as the German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder (1744-1803) claimed that true German
culture was to be discovered among the common people – das volk.
6. It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation (volksgeist) was
popularised. So collecting and recording these forms of folk culture was essential to the project of nation-
building.
7. The emphasis on vernacular language and the collection of local folklore was not just to recover an ancient
national spirit, but also to carry the modern nationalist message to large audiences who were mostly illiterate.
8. national feelings were kept alive through music and language. Karol Kurpinski, for example, celebrated the
national struggle through his operas and music, turning folk dances like the polonaise and mazurka into
nationalist symbols .
9. Language too played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. After Russian occupation, the Polish
language was forced out of schools and the Russian language was imposed everywhere.
10. In 1831, an armed rebellion against Russian rule took place which was ultimately crushed. Following this, many
members of the clergy in Poland began to use language as a weapon of national resistance. Polish was used for
Church gatherings and all religious instruction.
11. As a result, a large number of priests and bishops were put in jail or sent to Siberia by the Russian authorities as
punishment for their refusal to preach in Russian.
12. The use of Polish came to be seen as a symbol of the struggle against Russian dominance.

Q: Explain the term ‘Romanticism’.

Q: How ‘Romanticism’ played a key role in development of nationalist sentiments?
Q: “Poland began to use language as a weapon of national resistance”. Explain the
statement.
Q: Highlight cultural activities of Poland which helped in keeping nationalism alive.

HUNGER, HARDSHIP AND POPULAR REVOLT :

1. The first half of the nineteenth century saw an enormous increase in population all over Europe.
2. In most countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment. Population from rural areas migrated to the
cities to live in overcrowded slums.
3. Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods
from England, where industrialisation was more advanced than on the continent.
4. Especially so in textile production, which was carried out mainly in homes or small workshops and was only
partly mechanised. In those regions of Europe where the aristocracy still enjoyed power,
5. peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations.
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6. The rise of food prices or a year of bad harvest led to widespread pauperism in town and country.
7. The year 1848 was one such year. Food shortages and widespread unemployment brought the population of Paris
out on the roads.
8. A National Assembly proclaimed a republic, granted suffrage to all adult male above 21 and right to work.

Q: Why were the years of 1830’s of great hardship in Europe?Explain.

Q: What were the consequences of bad harvest and hardship in France 1848?

1848: THE REVOLUTION OF THE LIBERALS:

1. Parallel to the revolts of the poor, unemployed and starving peasants and workers in many European countries in
the year 1848, a revolution led by the educated middle classes was under way.
2. men and women of the liberal middle classes combined their demands for constitutionalism with national
unification.
3. In the German regions a large number of political associations whose members were middle-class professionals,
businessmen and prosperous artisans came together in the city of Frankfurt and decided to vote for an all-German
National Assembly.
4. On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives marched in a festive procession to take their places in the Frankfurt
parliament convened in the Church of St Paul.
5. They drafted a constitution for a German nation to be headed by a monarchy subject to a parliament. When the
deputies offered the crown onthese terms to Friedrich WilhelmIV ,King of Prussia, he rejected it and joined other
monarchs to oppose the elected assembly.
6. While the opposition of the aristocracy and military became stronger, the social basis of parliament eroded.
7. The parliament was dominated by the middle classes who resisted the demands of workers and artisans and
consequently lost their support.
8. The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial one within the liberal movement, in which
large numbers of women had participated actively over the years.
9. Women had formed their own political associations, founded newspapers and taken part in political meetings and
demonstrations.
10. Despite this they were denied suffrage rights during the election of the Assembly.
11. When the Frankfurt parliament convened in the Church of St Paul, women were admitted only as observers to
stand in the visitors’ gallery.
12. Though conservative forces were able to suppress liberal movements in 1848, they could not restore the old order.
13. Monarchs were beginning to realise that the cycles of revolution and repression could only be ended by granting
concessions to the liberal-nationalist revolutionaries.
14. Hence, in the years after 1848, the autocratic monarchies of Central and Eastern Europe began to introduce the
changes that had already taken place in Western Europe before 1815.
15. Serfdom and bonded labour were abolished both in the Habsburg dominions and in Russia.
16. Habusburg rulers granted more autonomy to the Hungarians in 1867.

Q: Explain the 1848 revolution of the liberals.

Q: Elaborate the political, social and economic ideas supported by the liberals.
Q: Explain the role of women in the nationalist struggle of Europe.
Q: Mention the changes in western Europe due to liberal movements?
Q: What were the outcomes of 1848 revolt in Europe?

THE MAKING OF GERMANY AND ITALY:

1. After 1848, nationalism in Europe moved away from its association with democracy and revolution.
2. Nationalist sentiments were often mobilised by conservatives for promoting state power and achieving political
domination over Europe.
3. This can be observed in the process by which Germany and Italy came to be unified as nation-states.
4. nationalist feelings were widespread among middle-class Germans, who in 1848 tried to unite the different
regions of the German confederation into a nation-state governed by an elected parliament.
5. This liberal initiative to nation-building was, however, repressed by the combined forces of the monarchy and the
military, supported by the large landowners of Prussia.
6. Prussia took on the leadership of the movement for national unification.
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7. Its chief minister, Otto von Bismarck, was the architect of this process carried out with the help of the Prussian
army and bureaucracy.
8. Three wars over seven years – with Austria, Denmark and France – ended in Prussian victory and completed the
process of unification.
9. In January 1871, the Prussian king, William I, was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at
Versailles.
10. On the bitterly cold morning of 18 January 1871, an assembly comprising the princes of the German states,
representatives of the army, important Prussian ministers including the chief minister Otto von Bismarck gathered
in the unheated Hall of Mirrors in the Palace of Versailles to proclaim the new German Empire headed by Kaiser
William I of Prussia.
11. The new state placed a strong emphasis on modernising the currency, banking, legal and judicial systems in
Germany.

Q: What changes came in nationalism in Europe after 1848?

Q: Briefly describe the process of German unification.
Q: Who was Otto von Bismarck and explain his role in nation building process in Germany?
Q: What was the outcome of German Unification of Germany?

ITALY UNIFICATION :

1. Italians were scattered over several dynastic states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire.
2. During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one, Sardinia-
Piedmont,was ruled by an Italian princely house.
3. The north was under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by the Pope
4. The southern regions were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain.
5. Even the Italian language had not acquired one common form and still had many regional and local variations.
6. The 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic.
7. He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for the dissemination of his goals.
8. The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831 and 1848 meant that the mantle now fell on Sardinia-Piedmont
under its ruler King Victor Emmanuel II to unify the Italian states through war.
9. In the eyes of the ruling elites of this region, a unified Italy offered them the possibility of economic development
and political dominance.
10. Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was neither a revolutionary nor a
democrat. Like many other wealthy and educated members of the Italian elite, he spoke French much better than
he did Italian.
11. Through a tactful diplomatic alliance with France engineered by Cavour, Sardinia-Piedmont
succeeded in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859.
12. Apart from regular troops, a large number of armed volunteers under the leadership of Giuseppe Garibaldi joined
the fray. In 1860, they marched into South Italy and the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies and succeeded in winning
the support of the local peasants in order to drive out the Spanish rulers.
13. In 1861 Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed king of united Italy.

Q: Examine the conditions of Italy before unification.

Q: Describe the process of unification of Italy under Giuseppe Mazzini?
Q: Who was Cavour? Explain his role in Italian unification?

FORMATION OF UNITED KINGDOM OF GREAT BRITAIN:

1. Britain formation of the nation-state was the result of a long-drawn-out process.

2. There was no British nation prior to the eighteenth century. The primary identities of the people who inhabited the
British Isles were ethnic ones – such as English, Welsh, Scot or Irish.
3. All of these ethnic groups had their own cultural and political traditions. But as the English nation steadily grew
in wealth, importance and power, it was able to extend its influence over the other nations of the islands.
4. The English parliament, which had seized power from the monarchy in 1688 at the end of a protracted conflict,
was the instrument through which a nation-state, with England at its centre, came to be forged.
5. The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland that resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of
Great Britain’ meant, in effect, that England was able to impose its influence on Scotland.
7 Prepared by:- Naresh Sharma Sir
 6. The British parliament was henceforth dominated by its English members.
7. The growth of a British identity meant that Scotland’s distinctive culture and political institutions were
systematically suppressed.
8. The Catholic clans that inhabited the Scottish Highlands suffered terrible repression whenever they attempted to
assert their independence.
9. The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic language or wear their national dress, and large
numbers were forcibly driven out of their homeland.
10. Ireland suffered a similar fate. It was a country deeply divided between Catholics and Protestants.
11. The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to establish their dominance over a largely Catholic country.
12. Catholic revolts against British dominance were suppressed.
13. After a failed revolt led by Wolfe Tone and his United Irishmen (1798), Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the
United Kingdom in 1801.
14. A new ‘British nation’ was forged through the propagation of a dominant English culture.
15. The symbols of the new Britain – the British flag (Union Jack), the national anthem (God Save Our Noble King),
the English language – were actively promoted and the older nations survived only as subordinate partners in this
union.
Q: What was the impact of the Act of Union 1707 ?
Q: Explain the process of nation- state formation in Britain.
Q: Explain how Ireland got incorporated intoUnited Kingdom in 1801?

VISUALISING THE NATION:

1. While it is easy enough to represent a ruler through a portrait or a statue, how does one go about giving a face to a
nation.
2. Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries found a way out by personifying a nation.
3. In other words they represented a country as if it were a person. Nations were then portrayed as female figures.
4. The female form that was chosen to personify the nation did not stand for any particular woman in real life; rather
it sought to give the abstract idea of the nation a concrete form.
5. The female figure became an allegory of the nation.
6. During the French Revolution artists used the female allegory to portray ideas such as Liberty, Justice and the
Republic.
7. These ideals were represented through specific objects or symbols.
8. The attributes of Liberty are the red cap, or the broken chain, while Justice is generally a blindfolded woman
carrying a pair of weighing scales.
9. Similar female allegories were invented by artists in the nineteenth century to represent the nation.
10. In France she was christened Marianne, a popular Christian name, which underlined the idea of a people’s nation.
11. Her characteristics were drawn from those of Liberty and the Republic – the red cap, the tricolour, the cockade.
12. Statues of Marianne were erected in public squares to remind the public of the national symbol of unity and to
persuade them to identify with it. Marianne images were marked on coins and stamps.
13. Germania became the allegory of the German nation. In visual representations, Germania wears a crown of oak
leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.

Q: How was nation portrayed by artists in 18th and 19th century?

Q: Name the female allegory who represented France and Germany? Describe their characteristics.

NATIONALISM AND IMPERIALISM:

1. By the last quarter of the nineteenth century nationalism no longer retained its idealistic liberal-democratic
sentiment of the first half of the century, but became a narrow creed with limited ends.
2. During this period nationalist groups became increasingly intolerant of each other and ever ready to go to war.
3. The major European powers, in turn, manipulated the nationalist aspirations of the subject peoples in Europe to
further their own imperialist aims.
4. The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the Balkans.
5. The Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern-day Romania, Bulgaria,
Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro whose inhabitants
were broadly known as the Slavs.
6. A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman Empire.
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7. The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism in the Balkans together with the disintegration of the Ottoman
Empire made this region very explosive.
8. One by one, its European subject nationalities broke away from its control and declared independence.
9. The Balkan peoples based their claims for independence or political rights on nationality and used history to
prove that they had once been independent but had subsequently been subjugated by foreign powers.
10. the Balkans thought of their struggles as attempts to win back their long-lost independence.
11. the different Slavic nationalities struggled to define their identity and independence, the Balkan area became an
area of intense conflict.
12. The Balkan states were fiercely jealous of each other and each hoped to gain more territory at the expense of the
others.
13. Matters were further complicated because the Balkans also became the scene of big power rivalry. During this
period, there was intense rivalry among the European powers over trade and colonies as well as naval and military
might.
14. These rivalries were very evident in the way the Balkan problem unfolded. Each power – Russia, Germany,
England, Austro-Hungary – was keen on countering the hold of other powers over the Balkans, and extending its
own control over the area.
15. This led to a series of wars in the region and finally the First World War.

Q: Why Balkan turn into a perennial source of tension and proved to be the battlefield of
World War-I ?
Q: How was Nationalism identified in the last part of 19th century Europe?
Q: Explain the composition of Balkans.
Q: “The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called
the Balkans.” Explain the statement.

IDEA OF NATION STATES:

1. Nationalism, aligned with imperialism, led Europe to disaster in 1914.

2. many countries in the world which had been colonised by the European powers in the nineteenth century began
to oppose imperial domination.
3. The anti-imperial movements that developed everywhere were nationalist, in the sense that they all struggled to
form independent nation-states, and were inspired by a sense of collective national unity, forged in confrontation
with imperialism.
4. European ideas of nationalism were nowhere replicated, for people everywhere developed their own specific
variety of nationalism.
5. The idea that societies should be organised into ‘nation-states’ came to be accepted as natural and universal

Q: “Societies should be organised into ‘nation-states’ came to be accepted as natural and

universal”. Explain.
Q: Summaries the anti-imperialistic struggle of Europe in early 20th century and how did it
pave way for the rise of nationalism.

What is the caricaturist trying to depict?

Answer: The caricaturist is depicting the club of liberal nationalists

which dates back 1820. Conservative regimes were set up in 1815.
These regimes were autocratic they were not ready to tolerate criticism
and dissent. They curbed all the actions which put a question mark on
the legitimacy of autocratic governments. Most of the regimes had
imposed censorship law to have control over freedom of the press and
over songs motivating the ideas of liberty.

9 Prepared by:- Naresh Sharma Sir

 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS(MCQ)
1. “In the initial stages, the French armies were welcomed as harbingers of liberty. But the initial enthusiasm
soon turned to hostility”. Identify the reason from the following.
A. Increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the French armies
B. Introduced uniform laws, standardised weights and measures
C. Secured equality before the law and the right to property
D. Simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system

2. Which one of the following statements is not true of Aristocracy?

A. They owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses
B. They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society
C. Their families were often connected by ties of marriage
D. They often clashed with the ideas of the monarchs

3. Find out from the following, what economic liberalism stood for.
(i) Abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital
(ii) End of autocracy and clerical privileges
(iii) Freedom for the individual and equality of all
(iv) Freedom of markets
A. (i) and (ii) are correct
B. (i) and (iii) are correct
C. (ii) and (iv) are correct
D. (i) and (iv) are correct

4. ---------------- was the famous English poet, who organised funds and later went to fight in the Greek War of
Independence.
A. Lord John Milton B. Lord Byron C. Lord Wellington D. Lord Macaulay

5. ---------------- of 1832 recognised Greece as the independent nation.

A. The Treaty of Versailles B. The Congress of Vienna
C. The Treaty of Constantinople D. The Treaty of Geneva

6. Arrange the following events related to the Formation of Britain as a nation, in chronological order.
(i) The Act of Union between England and Scotland
(ii) The English parliament, which had seized power from the monarchy
(iii) Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom
(iv) Catholic revolts against British dominance
A. iii - i – ii – iv
B. i – ii – iii – iv
C. iv – i – ii – iii
D. ii – i – iv – iii

7. Identify the three wars led by Otto van Bismarck that completed the process of German Unification.
A. Austria, Denmark and France
B. France, Austria and England
C. Denmark, France and England
D. England, Austria and Denmark

8. The following characteristics of Marianne were drawn from those of Liberty and of the Republic.
A. The red cap, The broken chain, The oak leaves
B. The red cap, The tricolour, The cockade
C. The broken chain, The tricolour, The cockade
D. The oak leaves, The cockade, The tricolor

9. “The Balkan area became an area of intense conflict”. Find out the reason(s) for conflict.
(i) Different Slavic nationalities struggled to define their identity and independence
(ii) Each Balkan state hoped to gain more territory at the expense of the others
10 Prepared by:- Naresh Sharma Sir
(iii) The Balkans also became the scene of big power rivalry
A. (i) and (i) are correct
B. (i) and (iii) are correct
C. All the above are correct
D. None of the above

10. The Nation is most often symbolized in which of the following forms?
A. History and Fiction B. Figures or Images C. Popular Prints D. Folklore and Songs

11. Which of the following did the European Conservatives not believe in?
A. Traditional Institutions of state policy B. Strengthened monarchy
C. A return to a society of pre-revolutionary days D. Preservation of the Church

12. Name the event that mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe.
A. Restoration of Bourbon kings to power. B. Greek war of independence.
C. The July Revolution. D. Installation of constitutional monarchy with Louis Philippe at its head.

13. Consider these statements about Romanticism,

i) Romanticism, was cultural movement.
ii) Romanticism was a political movement. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
A. i only B. ii only
C. Both i and ii D. Neither i nor ii

14. Consider the following.

1. Johann Gottfried - German philosopher
2. uprising in Brussels - Belgium breaking away from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands.
3. Delacroix - French Romantic painters.
4. Grimm Brothers - Folktales and Nation-building
Which of the above are correctly matched?
A. 2 and 3 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

15. Match the Column I with column II and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
(i) Victor Emmanuel II (a) Prussia
(ii) North German confederation (b) Kingdom of Italy
(iii) Giuseppe Mazzini Empire (c) Habsburg and Ottoman
(iv) Slav Nationalism (d) Young Italy
A) i - (d) ii - (b) iii - (a) iv - (c)
B) i - (a) ii - (b) iii - (c) iv - (d)
C) i - (c) ii - (a) iii - (d) iv - (b)
D) i - (b) ii - (a) iii - (d) iv - (c)

16. Match the Column I with column II and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
(i) Crown Of Oak leaves (a) Being Freed
(ii) Broken Chains (b) Heroism
(iii) Olive branch around the sword (c) Symbol of German empire
(iv) Breastplate with eagle (d) Willingness to make peace

A) i - (a) ii - (b) iii - (c) iv - (d)

B) i - (b) ii - (c) iii - (d) iv - (a)
C) i - (b) ii - (a) iii - (d) iv - (c)
D) i - (d) ii - (a) iii – (b) iv - (c)

17. Match the Column I with column II and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
11 Prepared by:- Naresh Sharma Sir
(i) Absolutist (a) A vision of a society that is so ideal that it is unlikely to actually exist
(ii) Utopian (b) A government or system of rule that has no restraints on the power exercised.
(iii) Nation (c) The culmination of a long past of endeavours, sacrifice and devotion.
(iv) Plebiscite (d) A direct vote by which all the people of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal
A) i - (a) ii - (b) iii - (c) iv - (d)
B) i - (b) ii - (c) iii - (d) iv - (a)
C) i - (b) ii - (a) iii - (c) iv - (d)
D) i - (d) ii - (a) iii – (b) iv - (c)

25. Which of the following aspect best signifies this image?

A. A map explaining the sea routes used in 18th century by EuropeansB. A map celebrating the British Empire.
C. A map showcasing the importance of British Empire. D. A map expressing the British ambitions of contouring the world.

26. Choose the correct statement about the image given bellow.

A. This image was painted by artist Lorenz Clasen.

B. This image was painted by artist Julius Hübner
C. Germania guarding the Rhine was the title of this painting.
D. Philip Veit, was the artist who have made this painting.

27. Choose the incorrect statement about the image given below.

12 Prepared by:- Naresh Sharma Sir

A. This image is from English caricature of 1859
B. In this image Garibaldi helping King Victor Emmanuel II of Sardinia-Piedmont to pull on the boot named ‘Italy.
C. The artist has portrayed Garibaldi as holding on to the base of the boot.
D. The artist has portrayed King Victor Emmanuel II of Sardinia-Piedmont, as holding on to the base of the boot

28. Which idea is best expressed in this image?

A. Nationalism B. Romanticism C. Revolution D. Conservatism

29. Consider these statements about the Image given below

1)Title of this caricature is “The Club of Thinkers”.
2)The plaque on the left bears the inscription: ‘The most important question of today’s meeting: How long will
thinking be allowed to us?”
3)This was a caricature of meeting called by liberals.
4)This caricature was created in 1820.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. 1 , 2 And 4

30. Which of the following aspect best signifies this image?

A. Round table conference at London B. Constituent Assembly of India

C. The Frankfurt Parliament in the church of St. Paul D. The Hall of Mirrors of Versailles

13 Prepared by:- Naresh Sharma Sir

31. Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of ‘The courier of Rhineland’?

A. Victories of Napoleon B. Difficulties faced by Napoleon

C. Losses of Napoleon D. Journey of Napoleon

32. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following aspects best suits the ‘sword’ in the image?
A. Heroism B. Symbol of Strength
C. Readiness to Fight D. Symbol of freedom

33. The painting “The Dream of worldwide Democratic and Social Republics” was prepared by whom?
A. Giuseppe Mazzini B. Frederic Sorrieu C. Henry Patullo D. Duke Metternich

14 Prepared by:- Naresh Sharma Sir

 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

OUTCOMES OF DEMOCRACY Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. A form of government in which the power of governance is in the hands of one person or
party.

a) Dictatorship b) Democracy c) Monarchy d) None of these

2. Economic development of a country depends on

a) Size of population b) Economic policies

c) Global situation d) All of these

3. Many countries of the world claim and practice:

a) Authoritarianism b) Democracy

c) Dictatorship d) None of the above

4. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B.

Column A Column B

i) Democracy a) Able to handle social divisions and conflicts

ii) Non-democratic regimes b) Have higher rate of economic growth

iii) Dictatorships c) Suppress internal social differences

iv) Democratic regimes d) Promotes equality among citizens

a) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a b) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c

c) i - c, ii - d iii - b, iv - a d) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b

5. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

a) Demand for separate state from
democratic government
b) Democratic government is facing
territorial issues with the bordering states
c) Democratic government is coping with
multiple pressures through accommodation
d) Democratic government accepts demands
based on separate state
1
6. Choose the wrong statement about democracy.

a) Promotes equality among citizens b) Enhances the dignity of the individual

c) Provide a method to resolve conflicts d) Does not have room to correct mistakes

7. Read the following statements. Choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : All democracies are based on political equalities.

Reason (R) : Democracy appears to be very successful in reducing economic

inequalities.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is wrong d) A is wrong but R is true

8. Read the information given below, and select the correct options.

“It is expected from a government that it should bring economic growth and development.
But many democracies of the world are unable to fulfil this expectation because of
population size, global situation, cooperation from other, countries, economic priorities,
etc.”
a) Economic outcomes b) Economic growth and development’

c) Legitimate government d) Reduction of inequality and poverty

9. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a) Most of the democracies have constitutions, they hold elections, have parties and
they guarantee rights to citizens.

b) Democracies are very much different from each other in terms of their social, economic
and cultural achievements.

c) All democracies are similar as far as social, economic and cultural conditions are
concerned.

d) Both a and b.

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. How does democracy produce an accountable government?

OR

Which form of government is better- democratic or non-democratic? Why?

11. Mention any two features that are common and different to most of the democracies in
the world.

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3×3=9

12. “The fact that people are complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy”.
Justify the statement with appropriate points.
2 SS-Ch-Outcomes of...... A
13. “Democratic government is legitimate government.” Support the statement with arguments.

OR

“Democracy accommodates social diversities”. Support the statement with examples.

14. Explain the condition under which dignity and freedom of the citizens can be promoted.

SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

15. “An ideal government would not only keep itself away from corruption but also make fighting
corruption and black money a top priority.” Justify the statement.

16. “Democracies lead to a peaceful and harmonious life among citizens.” Justify this statement.

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions:

There are some things that democracy must provide. In a democracy, we are most
concerned with ensuring that people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible
and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making, that affects
them all. Therefore, the most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a
government that is accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and
expectations of the citizens.

i) What are we concerned within a democracy? 1

ii) What should be the most basic outcome of democracy? 1

iii) How is democratic government ‘a transparent government’? 2

18. Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity
and freedom of the individual. Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings.
Often conflicts arise among individuals because some feel that they are not treated with
due respect. The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy.
Democracies throughout the world have recognised this, at least in principles. This has
been achieved in various degrees in various democracies. For societies which have been
built for long on the basis of subordination and domination, it is not a simple matter to
recognise that all individuals are equal.

Imagine a government that may take decisions very fast. But it may take decisions that
are not accepted by the people and may therefore face problems. In contrast, the democratic
government will take more time to follow procedures before arriving at a decision. But
because it has followed procedures, its decisions may be both more acceptable to the
people and more effective. So, the cost of time that democracy pays is perhaps worth it.

Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal weight in electing
3 SS-Ch-Outcomes of...... A
representatives. Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the political arena on
an equal footing, we find growing economic inequalities. A small number of ultra-rich enjoy
a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. Not only that, their share in the
total income of the country has been increasing. Those at the bottom of the society have
very little to depend upon. Their incomes have been declining. Something they find it
difficult to meet their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and
health.

i) In what way does democracy stand superior to any alternative government? 1

ii) Democracies are based on political equality. Explain. 1

iii) Why democracies find it difficult to meet the needs of bottom of society? 2

4 SS-Ch-Outcomes of...... A
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

OUTCOMES OF DEMOCRACY Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Democracy ensures that decision making will be based on

a) Norms and procedures b) Deliberation

c) Negotiation d) All of these

2. Rule of law is the feature of which form of government?

a) Dictatorship b) Democracy c) Monarchy d) All of these

3. Which government is superior to any other government in promoting dignity?

a) Monarchy b) Dictatorship c) Democracy d) None of the above

4. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B.

Column A Column B

i) Transparency and decision making a) Social outcomes of democracy

ii) Dignity and freedom of women b) Political outcome of democracy

iii) Economic growth and development c) Political outcome of democracy

iv) Accountable and responsive d) Economic outcome of democracy

government

a) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c b) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

c) i - c, ii - d iii - b, iv - a d) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b

5. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Which idea is depicted in following cartoon?

a) Economic inequality

c) Social diversity

c) Political inequality

d) Disparity in education

6. Choose the correct statement in relation to democracy

i) Democracy accommodates social diversity,

ii) Democracies are based on political equality

iii) Democratic government is a legitimate government,

5
 iv) Democracy is associated with peaceful competition of ideas.

a) a and b b) a, b, and c c) a and d d) All of these

7. Assertion (A) : Democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives. 1

Reason (R) : Democratic government may be slow, less efficient but it is legitimate and
people’s own government.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is wrong d) A is wrong but R is true

8. Read the information given below, and select the following correct options.

“It is expected from a government that it should bring economic growth and development.
But many democracies of the world are unable to fulfill this expectation because of
population size, global situation, cooperation from other, countries, economic priorities,
etc.”

a) Economic outcomes b) Economic growth and development’

c) Legitimate government d) Reduction of inequality and poverty

9. Read the information given below, and select the correct options.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a) Most of the democracies have constitutions, they hold elections, have parties and
they guarantee rights to citizens.

b) Democracies are very much different from each other in terms of their social, economic
and cultural achievements.

c) All democracies are similar as far as social, economic and cultureal conditions are
concerned.

d) Both a and b.

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. Why is democratic government better than other alternatives?

OR

How can you say that democracies are based on political equality?

11. Why decisions are delayed in Democracy?

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3×3=9

12. Analyse the challenges before the countries which do not have democratic form of
governments. 3

13. “There is overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world.” Support the
statement. 3
6 SS-Ch-Outcomes of...... B
 OR

Explain the condition under which dignity and freedom of the citizens can be promoted.

14. “Democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt to be not so good in practice.” Justify the
statement.

SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

15. “Some people think that democracy produces a less effective government.” Analyse the
statement.

16. “Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and
freedom of the individual”. Justify this statement.

OR

Democracy is better than any other form of government¨. Support with your answer.

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic
politics: they have formal constitutions, they hold elections, they have parties and they
guarantee rights of citizens. Whole these features are common to most of them, these
democracies are very much different from each other in terms of their social situations,
their economic achievements and their cultures. Clearly, what may be achieved or not
achieved under each of these democracies will be very different. But is there something
that we can expect from every democracy, just because it is democracy?

i) What is democracy? 1

ii) What are the common features of democratic countries? 2

iii) Give one point of difference between a Democratic and Non-Democratic government.
1

18. Read the following passage and answer the questions.

It will be a fair expectation that democracy should produce a harmonious social life.
Democracies accommodate various social divisions. Belgium has successfully negotiated
differences among ethnic populations.

It is necessary to understand that democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion. The
majority always needs to work with the minority so that governments function to represent
the general view. Majority and minority opinions are not permanent.

Rule by majority means that in case if every decision or in case of every election, different
persons and groups may and can form a majority. Democracy remains democracy only

7 SS-Ch-Outcomes of...... B
as long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority on the basis of birth, then the
democratic rule ceases to be accommodative for that person or group.

Take the case of dignity of women. Most societies across the world were historically male
dominated societies. Long struggles by women have create some sensitivity today that
respect to and equal treatment of women are necessary ingredients of a democratic
society. That does not mean that women are actually always treated with respect. But
once the principle is recognised , it become easier for women to wage a struggle against
what is now unacceptable legally and morally. In a non-democratic set up, this
unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual freedom
and dignity would not have the legal and moral force there.

Democracy is a better form of government when compared with dictatorship or any other
alternatives. When we talk to people around us, most of them support democracy against
other alternatives, such as rule by a monarch or military or religious leaders.

i) What are the conditions under which democracies accommodate social diversities?
1

ii) How does democracy maintain the dignity of women? Explain. 2

iii) Do you feel that democracy is better form compared to other alternative. Why? 1

8 SS-Ch-Outcomes of...... B
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

POLITICAL PARTIES Marks : 40

SET A

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Which political party believes in Marxism-Leninism?

a) Communist Party of India b) Nationalist Congress Party
c) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) d) D. Bahujan Samaj Party

2. Pick the country where the two-party system exists?

a) United Kingdom b) China c) India d) Pakistan
3. What does the term ‘Partisan’ mean?
a) The affair of the state or the science of the governance
b) A group of people who come together to promote common beliefs
c) A person who is strongly committed to the party
d) The ruling party which runs the government
4. Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has made the President the Supreme Commander
of Armed Forces.
Reason (R) : Democracy maintains civilian supremacy over the military force.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false d) A is false but R is true
5. Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?
A B
a. Indian National Congress Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Bharatiya Janata party Bharatiya Jana Sangh
c. Communist party of India Marxist Marxism - Leninism
d. Bahujan Samaj Party Kanshi Ram
6. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:
Which of the following best signifies this cartoon?
a) People hate politics
b) People want to throw away the politicians in
Niagara Falls
c) Political parties are one of the least trusted institutions
all over the world
d) People of Canada think that the Liberals should be
in power
1
7. Read the information given below, considering one of the following correct options.

Founded in 1980 by reviving the erstwhile Bharatiya Jana Sangh, formed by Syama Prasad
Mukherjee in 1951. Wants to build a strong and modern India by drawing inspiration from
India’s ancient culture and values; and Deendayal Upadhyaya’s ideas of integral humanism
and Antyodaya. Cultural nationalism (or ‘Hindutva’) is an important element in its conception
of Indian nationhood and politics.

a) Bharatiya Janata Party b) All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)

c) Indian National Congress (INC) d) Nationalist Congress Party (NCP)

8. Fill in the blank.

Classification of party system

Single party system China

Two party system USA

Multi party system ........................

a) UK b) India c) Pakistan d) France

9. What is the guiding philosophy of Bharatiya Janata Party?

a) Cultural nationalism b) Religion above all

c) No discrimination on the basis of caste

d) Equal opportunity for all

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. How people can put pressure on political parties to reform them?

11. What is multi party system?

OR

Why do political parties involve partisanship?

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3×3=9

12. State the conditions as laid down by the Election Commission to recognize a ‘state party and
‘national party’.

13. How ‘do money and muscle power play an important role in elections? Explain.
OR
Analyse the three components of a political party.
14. How can an ordinary citizen contribute in reforming the political parties?

SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

15. Suggest and explain any five measures to reform political parties.

2 SS-Ch-Political parties A
16. “Dynastic succession is one of the most serious challenges before the political parties.” Analyse
the statement.
OR
“All over the world, people express their dissatisfaction with the failure of political parties to
perform their functions well.” Analyse the statement with arguments.
SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8
17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative

democracies. As we have seen, large societies need representative democracy. As
societies became large and complex, they also needed some agency to gather different
views on various issues and to present these to the government. They needed some
ways, to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government could
be formed.

i) List any two functions of a political party. 1

ii) What is the necessity of a political party? 1

iii) How does political parties help in shaping the option of the public? 2

18. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Political parties are easily one of the most visible institutions in a democracy. For most
ordinary citizens, democracy is equal to political parties. If you travel to remote parts of
our country and speak to the less educated citizens, you could come across people who
may not know anything about our Constitution or about the nature of our government. But
chances are that they would know something about our political parties. At the same time
this visibility does not mean popularity. Most people tend to be very critical of political
parties. They tend to blame parties for all that is wrong with our democracy and our
political life. Parties have become identified with social and political divisions.
i) What are political parties? 2
ii) Name three components of political parties. 1
iii) Which is the most visible institution in a democracy? 1

3 SS-Ch-Political parties A
 CHAPTER WISE QUESTION

Class X SOCIAL SCIENCE Time : 1½ hrs

POLITICAL PARTIES Marks : 40

SET B

SECTION A - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9×1=9

1. Which one of the following is considered the best form of government?

a) Democracy b) Dictatorship c) Monarchy d) Military Rule
2. How many parties are required in any democratic system to compete in elections in order
to come to power?
a) At least two parties b) A least four parties
c) More than two parties d) At least three parties
3. What is an ideological one-party system?
a) Party based on suppression of other parties
b) Party based on coercion
c) Party based on ideological reasons; coercion and suppression of other parties
d) Party based on communist ideology
4. Assertion (A) : Only those parties that are recognised as national parties can contest in
elections for Parliament.
Reason (R) : Recognition to a political party as a national party is accorded by the
Election Commission.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false d) A is false but R is true
5. Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?
List I List II
a. Political parties Coalition Government

b. Two party system Election Commission

c. Multiparty system Deadlock between two parties

d. Muslim League Regional Party

6. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following leaders is shown in this cartoon?

a) Berlusconi b) Putin

c) Kwame Nkrumah d) Mussolini

4
7. Read the information given below and select the correct option.

Formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram. Seeks to represent and secure
power for the bahujan Samaj which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious
minorities. Draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of Shahu Maharaj, Mahatma
Phule, Periyar Ramaswami Naicker and Babasaheb Ambedkar. Stands for the cause of
securing the interests and welfare of the dalits and oppressed people.

a) Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPI-M)

b) Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)

c) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)

d) Indian National Congress (INC)

8. Fill in the blank.

Regional parties

Karnataka Janata Dal

Andhra Pradesh Telungudesam

Punjab ..............................

a) Bahujan Samaj Party b) Akali Dal

c) Indian Congress Party d) Communist party

9. If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all other members
are neglected, then what challenge is being faced by that party?

a) Challenge of alliance formation b) Challenge of dynastic succession

c) Challenge of partial elections d) Challenge of power

SECTION B - VERY SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2×2=4

10. What is an important function of a political party in India?

11. Why is one party political system not considered a good democratic system?

OR

Why do political parties involve partisanship?

SECTION C - SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3×3=9

12. Describe any three main features of Two-Party system.

13. How can an ordinary citizen contribute in reforming the political parties?
OR
Why modern democracies cannot exist without political parties? Explain with reasons.
14. Which three challenges do you feel are being faced by political parties in India ? Give your
Opinion.

5 SS-Ch-Political parties B
 SECTION D - LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 2 × 5 = 10

15. “Lack of internal democracy within parties is the major challenge to political parties all over the
world.” Analyse the statement.
16. How do political parties help in shaping public opinion? Explain.
OR
Examine any two institutional amendments made by different institutions to reform political
parties and their leaders.

SECTION E - CASE BASED QUESTIONS 2×4=8

17. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.
The Constitution was amended to prevent elected MLAs and MPs from changing parties.
This was done because many elected representatives were indulging in DEFECTION in
order to become ministers or for cash rewards. Now the law says that if any MLA or MP
changes parties, he or she will lose the seat in the legislature. This new law has helped
bring defection down. At the same time this has made any dissent even more difficult.
MPs and MLAs have to accept whatever the party leaders decide.

i) What is meant by defection? 1

ii) Give any two suggestions for reforming political parties. 2

iii) Give one challenges faced by political parties for which they need reforms? 1

18. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.
Democracies that follow a federal system all over the world tend to have two kinds of
political parties: parties that are present in only one of the federal units and parties that
are present in several or all units of the federation. This is the case in India as well. There
are some countrywide parties, which are called ‘national parties’. These parties have
their units in various States. But by the large all these units follow the same policies,
programmes and strategy that is decided at the national level.
i) What is a criteria for a party to be recognized as a national party? 2
ii) Who allots symbols to political parties? 1
iii) Name the seven national political parties of India. 1

6 SS-Ch-Political parties B