08/01/2025 Code-D Phase-2

Aakash
Medlcal|IT-JEE| Foundatlons

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM:720 Term Exam for NEET-2024-26_TYM(P2)-TE05D Time:200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Gravitaion, Mechanical Properies of Solids, Mechanical Properties of Fluids
Chemistry : Redox Reactions, The p-Blok Elements (Group: 13 & 14)
Botany: Plant Kingdom, Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
:
Zoology Animal Kingdom-I: Non-Chordates

General Instructions :
1. There are two secions in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Secion-A & only 10
questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, -1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unansweredunattempted
questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7.Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fuid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1, Two planets andB have same density. The radius of A is

A 2
The variation of potential energy with intermolecular
twice that of ratio of escape speeds VA:VB is
B. The separation is given by
(1) 2:1
:
(2) V2 1

:
(3) 1 V2
(4) 1:2
For r> r1, force is

(1) Attractive

(2) Repulsive
(3) Zero
(4) May be attractive, repulsive or zero

1
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26
_TYM(P2)-TE05D

Three identical point masses each of mass 1 kg are placed The Young's modulus of brass and steel are 1
3. x 101 Nímz
3.
along x axis at x = 0, 1 m and 2 m, respecively. The x
magnitude of gravitational force on the mass at origin (x=0) and 2 1012 Nim respectively. wires of both materials,
If

having same length, are loaded with same weight, then

is
they both extend by 4 mm. Ratio of the radiiof two wires RB
(1) 3G
:Ris
(2) 5G
(1) /2:1
(3)
G (2) 1 :/2
(4) G
(3) 4 :1
4. Kepler'ssecond law is based on (4) 1:4
(1) Newton's second law 9. A hydraulic lift works on the principle of

(2) Special theory of relativity (1) Floatation

(3) Stefan law (2) Bernouli's principle

(4) Conservation of angular momentum (3) Pascal's law
(4) Continuity
5. The increase in pressure required to decrease the 400 litre
volume of a liquid by 0.001% is (Bulk modulus of the liquid 10. The radii of two air bubbles are in the ratio 3 : 5. The
is 2.1 x 10 Nm²). respective ratio of their excess pressure inside them is
(1) 42 kPa (1) 3:5
(2) 63 kPa (2) 5:3
(3) 84 kPa (3) 9:25
(4) 21 kPa (4) 25:9
6. The escape velocity of a body on earth's surface is Ve. A 11, Two simple harmonic motions are represented by x1 =
body is thrown up with velocity of 3 ve. Assuming that the 5sin(2n) and x2 = 2sin(2rt + T). The resultant amplitude (in
sun and planets do not influence the motion of the body, cm) will be (x1 and x2 are in cm)
then the velocity of the body at the infinite distance is
(1) 3
(1) 2Ve
(2) 7
(2) Ve
(3) 5
(3) V2ve (4) 2
(4) /3ve 12. Choose the incorrect statement among the followings
7. Consider following two statements (1) Force of gravitation follows Newton's third law of motion
Statement-: Stress is a unitless quantity. (2) Lav of gravitation cannot explain why gravity exists
Statement-l: Snow is better thermal insulator than ice.
The correct statement(s) islare (3) Gravitational force is central force
(1) Only (0) For large distances, gravitational force becomes
(4)
(2) Only () repulsive

(3) Both () and (11) 13. A rope 2 cm in diameter breaks, if the tension in it exceeds
600 N. The maximum tension that a similar rope of diameter
(4) Neither () nor (l) 3cm can
withstand is
(1) 600 N
(2) 900 N
(3) 450N
(4) 1350N

2
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26 TYM(P2)-TE05D

14. A vertical U-shaped tube of uniform cross-section contains 18. By insering a capillary tube upto depth / in water, the water
mercury in both limbs. Another liquid of density 3.4 g/cm is rises to a height h. If the lower end of the capillary tube is
closed inside water and capillary is taken out and closed
poured in one limb of column length 4 cm as shown in end is opened. The length of water remaining in the tube is
figure. Then difference (h) between the upper level of liquid
(Here /> h)
in both the limbs is (density of mercury = 13.6 g/cm°)
(1) Zero
(2) /+h
(3) 2 h
4 cm (4) h
19. A small hole is punched at the bottom of a water ank in
which water is flled upto a height of 19.6 m. If the tank is
open at the top then speed of water coming out from the
hole is (take g = 9.8 m/s)
(1) 4.9 m/s
(1) 1 cm
(2) 9.8 m/s
(2) 2 cm (3) 19.6 m/s
(3) 3 cm (4) 29.4 m/s
(4) 4 cm
20. According to Hooke's law of elasticity, if stress is increased,
15. Four open vessels are connected as shown the ratio of stress to strain
(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Becomes zero
C
If A, B,C and D are bottom points of the vessels, which of (4) Remains constant
the following statements is correct regarding Pressure PA.
21. A material within its elastic limits, has Young's modulus Y.
PB, Pc.and Pp at their respective points
The material is subjected to a stress P. The elastic energy
(1) PA>Pg>Pc> PD stored per unit volume of the material is

(2) PA<PB <Pc < PD (1)

(3) PA= PB =Pc= PD (2)

(4) PA= PB > Pc< PD (3)
16. The radius of a soap bubble is increased from 2R to 3R.
Work done in this process (T= Surface tension) is (4)

(1) 24nTR2 22. From given stress strain curve for two materials, we
conclude that (Y= Young's modulus)
(2) 20nTR2
A
(3) 40TTR?
B
(4) 167TR? Stress
17. 125 small droplets each having radius r falling through air
with terminal velocity vT, each coalesce to form a single T45°
drop of radius R and terminal velocity as vp. The ratio of Strain
dy to vT is (1) YB= YA
(1) 1:25 (2) Ye=3 YA

(2) 25:1 (3) Yz = y3Y4

(3) 1:5 (4) YA
=3Y;
(4) 5:1

3
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26
_TYM(P2)-TE05D

23. The elastic potential energy stored in a ire is 13 for an 27. The gravitational field strength E due to a uniform solid
extension of 1 mm. The extra energy stored in the wire if the sphere of radius R varies with distancer from the centre as
length is further increased by 1 mm is. Et
(1) 1J
(1)
(2) 2 J
(3) 3 J R
(4) 4 J E4
24. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A)
(2)
and Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : For a planet revolving around the sun, its
speed is more when it is close to the sun. R
Reason (R) : Law of conservation of angular momentum is
the underlying principle.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given
(3)
below:
Both A and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1) R
explanation of (A).
Both A and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
explanation of (A).
(4)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R)is also false. Rr
a 28. The value of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
25. Two bodies of masses M1 and M2 are separated by
earth is x., Ata depth 'd' from the surface of earth, its value is
is the force on M1 due to M2 and y. If 'R' is the radius of earth, then value of d will be
certain distance. If
F2
Fa is the force on M due to M1 then which of the
(1)
R
following relation is correct?
(1)
F=Fa (3) (1-) R
(2) F2+ Fa =0
(4)(1-) R

29. A satellite of mass mo is orbiting around the earth at a

height h above the surface of the earth. If the mass of the
(4) Both (2) and (3) earth is M and its radius is R, then angular momentum of
26. The temperature of a wire is doubled. The Young's modulus the satellite is
of elasticity will
(1) moGMR
(1) Be doubled
(2) mo /GM(R+)
(2) Become four times

(3) Remain same (3)

mo/
(4) Decrease
(4) TT0 GM
/
R+h

30. If the earth stops rotating suddenly, then value of g is

(1) Increase at poles but decrease at equator
(2) Decrease at poles but increase at equator
(3) Increase at equator and remain same at poles
(4) Decrease at poles and remain same at equator
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26 TYM(P2)-TEO5D

34, A For a perfectly rigid body value of Bulk modulus is

:

31, The Sl unit of pressure is

infinite.
(1) Atmosphere R:For a perfectly rigid body change in volume is zero.
(2) Bar Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the
(1)
(3) Pascal Correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
(4) Torr (2)
the correct explanation of the assertion
32. The loss of weight of body is 10 N when body is completely (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
immersed in water then the amount of water displaced by
that body is (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(1) 10 m3 35. Following four wires are made of same material. Which one
will have greatest elongation when subjected to the same
(2) 10-3 m3 tension?
(3) 100 m® (1) Length 50 cm, diameter 0.5 mm
(2) Length 100 cm, diameter 1 mm
(4) 10- m3 (3) Length 200 cm, diameter 2 mm
33. Liquid rises in capillary tube when angle of contact 8 is
(4) Length 300 cm, diameter 3 mm
(1) <0<*
(2) 0
<0 <;
(3) 0 =
=
(4) T

SECTION-B

... are
-
36. Gravitaional potential in a region is given by V = (y + 38. Infinite number of bodies of masses m, 2m, 4m,
on x = respectively. The
situated x-axis at 1, 2, 4,
yz² + xz²y) Jkg. The gravitational field intensity at (1, 1, o) resulting gravitational field due to this system at origin will
m will be be
4) (i+2) Nlkg (1) 4Gm
(2) 2Gm
(2) (2i+j+2å) N/9 (3) Gm
NJk9
(9)
(+3) (4) Cm
39. The gravitational force between two bodies is F, the mass
If
(49)
(2i+j-2å) N/kg of each body is halfed and distance between them is
doubled, then the force acting between them will be
.
37. Assume that force of gravitation varies as F x Then
(1) F
orbital speed of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius " is
proportional to (2)
(1) 0 (3)
(2) +
(4)
f
(3) F
(4)

5
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26 TYM(P2)-TE05D

force of attraction between earth and its 45. A:Pascal's law is the working principle of hydraulic brakes.
40. If
he gravitational
satellite revolving around it vanishes suddenly, then which R:Pressure is equal to thrust multiplied by area.
of the following is correct? Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the
(1) Correct explanation of the assertion
Satellite will continue to move in its orbit with same
(1)
speed Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
(2) the correct
Satellite will move towards the earth vertically explanation of the assertion
(2) downwards
statement but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is true
Satellite will move tangentially to the original orbit with (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(3) same velocity
46, Dimensional formula of surface tension is
Satellite will move continuously with slowly decreasing
(4)
radius and finally drops to earth. (1) (MLT

41. In the shown figure, the velocity v3 will be

m
(2) (MLOT 2
A, =0.15
(3) (MLT 3

5 m/s 2m/s
(4) (ML2T2

A, = 0.2 m? 47. An ideal gas expands according to the law P= where P

is pressure, V is volume and K is constant for this process.
|A, =0.1 m² The bulk modulus of the gas is

(1) 7 m/s (1) Kp2

(2) 3 m/s (2) KV

(3) 1 m/s (3)
(4) 10 m/s
(4)
42. Modulus of elasticity depends on
4.0 m long copper rod of cross sectional area
1 cm is
*O A
(1) Nature of material
material stretched by a force of 4.0 x 10 N. If Young's modulus for
(2) Shape and size of
copper is Y 1.2 10 Ním, then stress is
= x
(3) Force applied on the material
(1) 2.0 x 10 N/m²
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(2) 4.0 x 10 Nim²
43. Compressibility of a substance is reciprocal to
(1) Poisson's ratio (3) 1.0 x 10 Nim2
(2) Young's modulus (4) 6.0 x 10 Nim2
(3) Modulus of rigidity
+9 In a uniform wire strain produced is 2 x 10-, If the
(4) Bulk modulus
corresponding stress is 1.5 x 10 Ním. The Young's
44. According to Kepler, the period of revolution of planet () modulus of the wire is
and its semi-major axis about the sun (R) are related by the
equation (1) 0.75 x 10 Nm2
(1) T'R3= Constant (2) 1.5 x 10 Nim2

(2)T²R3 = Constant (3) 0.75 x 109 Ním2

(3) TR = Constant (4) 1.5 x 10 N/m2

(4) T'R= Constant 50. The speed of water stream at which velociy head is 10 cm
of water will be [Tage g = 1000 cm/s]
(1) 121.2 cm/s

(2) 173.1 cm/s

(3) 1414 cm/s
(4) 135.5 cm/s

6
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26 TYM(P2)-TEO5D

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. The oxidation number of O in O2F2is 56. Amphoteric oxide among the following is
(1) B203
(1) +2
(2) -2 (2) GagO3

(3) -1 (3) In2O3

(4) +1 (4) TlzO3
52. Oxidation state of oxygen in O3 is 57, Consider the following half cell reactions
(1) -1 (a) Co3+ +e--
Co* E°=1.81v
(2) -2 (b) Au++3 e Au(s) E° =1.40 V
=
(c) Br +2e- 2 Br E° 1.09 V
(3) Zero

(4) - (d) Znz* +2

e-
Zn(s) E° =-0.76 V
The strongest oxidising and reducing species respectively
53. Gven below are two statements: one is labelled as are
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): (1) Co2+ and Zn2+
Assertion (A) : FegO4 is a mixed oxide of iron.
Reason (R): Oxidation state of Fe in FegO4 is either +3 or (2) Co3+ and Zn
+4.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct (3) Br and Zn
answer from the options given below:
(4) Au and Co+
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the
(1) 58. E° of cell reaction,
correct explanation of the assertion ,
Cu (s) + Iz (s) Cu?t (aq) +21- (aq) is
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
(2)
the correct explanation of the assertion
=0.34 V and E- =0.54 V)
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(1) -0.2 V
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
V
(2) 0.88
54. Oxidation states of carbon atoms in diamond and graphite
are (3) 0.2 V
(1) +2,+ 4 (4) 0.14 V
(2) +4, +2 59. Incorrect statement about oxidation is
(3) -4, 4 (1) Addition of oxygen
(4) 0,0 (2) Addition of electronegative element
55. Select the reaction which is of disproportionation type? (3) Addition of electron

(1) CacOz(s)- Cao(s) + coz(9) (4) Removal of electropositive element

+ 302(9)
(2) 2KCI03(s)- 2KcI(s)
(3) 4KCIO3(s) 3KCIO4(s) + KCI(s)

(4) Ag20(s) 2Ag(s) + o2(9)

Term Exam for NEET-2024-26 TYM(P2)-TE05D

65. The species which cannot undergo disproporionaion

60. aFe+ +Cr,0%+bH+ Fet + cCrt + dH,0 reaction is
a, b, c, d in the balanced reaction are
ab d (1) CIO
(A)67 214 (2) CIO,
(B)||614|2|7
(3) CI0,
(C)2 14
(4) CIO;

(1) (A) 66. Which of the following is not an example of redox reaction?
(2) (B) (1) CuO + H2 - Cu + H20
(3) (C) (2) Fe203 +3CO - 2Fe +3CO2
(4) (D) (3) 2K +
F2 2KF
61.. Which among the following elements is of highest (4) BaCl2 + H2SO4 - BaSO4 + 2HCI
catenation power?
(1) Carbon 67. In which of the following compound, the oxidation number
of iodine is fractional?
(2) Silicon
(1) IF3
(3) Germanium
(2) HIO3
(4) Tin
(3) HI
62. Equivalent mass of KMnOa in the given reaction is (molar
mass of KMnO4 is Mgmol-) (4) I;
KMn04 +S0 Mn'* +sO 68. Given below are two statements one is labelled as
:

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

:

(1) Assertion (A):Boron cannot form BF ion.

Reason (R) : Boron does not have empty d-orbital in
(2) outermost shell
In the light of above statements choose the most
(3) appropriate answer from options given below.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4)
4 (1)
explanation of (A)
63. ldentify n-factor of underlined species in the following Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
reaction (2)
(A)
explanation of
Sb2Os + S20%+ SbO+ H2 SO3
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false
(1) 6 (4) (A)is false, (R) is true
(2) 2
69. Aluminium reacts with aqueous alkali (NaOH) to form
(3) 3
(1) Aluminium oxide and water
(4) 4
(2) Aluminium oxide and hydrogen
64. Average oxidation state of 'S' atom in compound H2S406 (3) Sodium tetrahydroxoaluminate(|l) and hydrogen
is
(4) Sodium tetrahydroxoaluminate (lI) and water
(1) 2
70. The components of producer gas are
(2) 2.5
(1) CO2 + CO
(3) 0
(2) H2 + CO
(4) 6
(3) CO+ N2

(4) N2 + O2

8
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26 _TYM(P2)-TE05D

71. Laboratory method of preparation of diborane involves the 77, Which of the following gases combines with haemoglobin to
reaction of form a very stable compound and reduces the oxygen
carrying capacity of blood?
(1) l2 and HgBO3
(1) CO2
(2) l2 and NaBHa
(2) CO
(3) BF3 and LiAIH4
(3) SO2
(4) BF3 and NaH
(4) NO2
72. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence
78. Chain silicate is represented by
(1) Ga< In < Al<TI
(2) Al < Ga< In < TI
(1) (Si; 0)
(3) TI< In < Ga < Al
(2) (Si, Of),
(4) In < T|< Ga
Sio1 n
< AI
(3) (
73. A white solid (A) gives fumes in moist air and exists as
dimer. Its aqueous solution turns blue litmus red. It also
(4) ( Sio3 n
gives white precipitates with AgNOg solution. Solid (A) is
79. Inorganic benzene is
(1) Aluminium hydroxide (1) B3NgH6
(2) Aluminium chloride
(2) BN
(3) Aluminium sulphate
(3) B2H6
(4) Aluminium oxide
(4) Graphite
74. The element which does not show catenation is
80. Given below are two statements one is assertion (A) other is
(1) Si reason (R).
(2) C
Assertion: +2 oxidation state of Pb is more stable than +4
Oxidation state.
(3) Pb Reason: Pb shows inert pair effect.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer.
(4) Ge
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the
75. Given below are two statements one is assertion (A) other is (1)
correct explanation of the assertion
reason (R).
Assertion (A) : C, Si and Ge are not affected by water. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
Reason (R): Tin decomposes when reacts with steam to (- the correct explanation of the assertion
form dioxide and dihydrogen gas. (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
In the light of above statements choose the correct answer.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the
(1) correct
explanation of the assertion 81. Elements of group 13 mainly form covalent compounds
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not because
(2)
the correct explanation of the assertion (1) Size of ions is small
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (2) Sum of three ionization energies is very high
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (3) Electronegativity values are high
76. Which of the following compounds on hydrolysis will form (4) All of these
cross linked silicones?
82. Boric acid is having a polymeric type sructure because of
(1) CHgSiCl3 its
(2) (CHg)2SiCi2 (1) Basic nature
(3) (CH3)3SiCI (2) Acidic nature
(3) Hydrogen bonds
(4) Sicl4
(4) Co-ordinate bonds
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26 TYM (P2)-TE05D

83. Inthe titration of l2 with NagS203 solution, the indicator 85. Zeolite catalyst used in the petroleum industry which
Converts alcohols directly into gasoline is
used to detect end point of the reaction is
(1) Phenolphthalein
(1) ZSM-2
(2) Diphenylamine (2) ZSM-3

(3) Methyl red (3) ZSM-4

(4) Starch
(4) ZSM-5
84. The mass of potassium dichromate (Molar mass = 294
g/mol) recquired to oxidise 750 cm of 0.6 M Mohr's salt
solution is
(1) 0.49g
(2) 0.45 g
(3) 22.05 g
(4) 2.2 g

SECTION-B

86. Which of the following reaction is not feasible? 83. How many moles of Cr, 0; is needed to oxidise one mole
[Given: Et1Ao =0.80 V; EpP2 =+0.77 v of H2S to sulphur in acidic medium?
=0.54 V; E° +0.34 v]
"Cul|Cu (1)}
(1) 2Agt + Cu 2Ag + Cuzt (2) 3

(2) 2Fe3++ Cu
2Fe2t +Cu2t (3)

(3) Ag + (4) 2
Fet Fe2t + Agt
+
90. Given below are two statements one is assertion (A) other is
22Fe+
(4) 2Fe++ l2 reason (R).
Assertion (A): Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is an
87, Given below are two statements one is assertion (A) other is example of disproportionation reaction.
reason (R).
Assertion (A) : lodine can disproportionate in basic
Reason (R): In above process oxidation number of oxygen
decreases while it gets converted into oxygen.
medium (NaOH). In the light of above statements choose the correct answer.
Reason (R) : NaOH behaves as oxidising as well as
reducing agent for the reaction. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the
In the light of above statements choose the correct answer. correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
(1) (2)
correct explanation of the assertion the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(2)
the correct explanation of the assertion (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
91. Oxidaion number of carbon in Co.sulphur in s0 and
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
phosphorus in PO are respectively
88. Standard electrode potential for Cr"ICr couple is -0.74 V (1) +5, +4, +6
and that for Fe*Fe couple is 0.77 V. These two couples (2) +4, +5, +6
their standard state are connected to make a cell. The
cell potential will be (3) +4, +6, +5
(1) 0.81v (4) +6, +5, +4
(2) 0.03V
(3) 1.51V
(4) 1.21 V

10
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26 _TYM(P2)-TE05D

96. Which is an incorrect statement about

92, Oxidation number of middle C of Cg02 is
Buckminsterfullerene?
(1) 0
(1) Carbon atoms are sp hybridised
(2) -2 (2) contains twenty six- membered rings
It
(3) +2
(3) is aromatic in character
It
(4) +4
(4) It is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon
93. Equivalent mass of N2 in the reacion N2 + 3H2 2NH3.
is
97. Minimum ionisation energy among the following is of
(1) Pb
(1)
(2) Si
(2)
(3) Ge
(3) 14 (4) Sn
(4) 7 98. Which of the following is most basic?
94. Given below are two statements one is assertion (A) other is (1) B203
reason (R).
Assertion (A):Carbon dioxide can be obtained asa solid (2) Alz03
in the form of dry ice.
Reason (R) : Dry ice is used as a refrigerant for ice-cream (3) GagO3
and frozen food.
In the light of above statements choose the correct answer. (4) In203
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the 99. The descending order of atomic radius of elements of group
(1) 13 in periodic table is
correct explanation of the assertion
8oth Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not (1) TI > In > Ga >Al > B
(2)
the correct explanation of the assertion (2) TI > Al > Ga > In > B
statement but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is true Al > B
(3) TI > In
>
Ga>
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements >
> B
(4) TI> Ga> In Al

95, Incorrect statement about graphite is 100.Angle formed by terminal hydrogens with boron in B2H6 is
(1) It has layered structure
(1) 97°
(2) Each carbon atom is sp hybridised (2) 120°
(3) It conducts electricity
(3) 109°
(4) It is very soft and slippery (4) 80°

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101.Agar commonly used in culture medium is obtained from 102.Mark the incorrect statement about Cycas.
(1) Gelidium (1) Cycas has unbranched stem

(2) Chara (2) has both sex organs on the same plant
It

(3) Sargassum (3) Coralloid roots are associated with N2 fixing bacteria

(4) Dictyota (4) It is heterosporous

11
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26 TYM(P2)-TEO5D

103.Which of the following features in heterosporous 109.Choose the incorrect statement.

pteridophytes is considered as a precursor of seed habit, (1) Allbryophytes are homosporous
the event which is an important step in evolution?
Floridean starch is stored food in the members of
(1) Gametophytes require cool, damp, shady places to grow (< Phaeophyceae
(2) Need of water for fertilisation (3) Motile stage is absent in Rhodophyceae
(3) Biflagellated motile male gametes Chlorella is used as food supplement even by space
(4) travellers
Development of zygotes into young embryo within
(4)
female gametophytes 110.The most common type of aseXual spores produced in

104.The event of pollination is seen in which of the given plant algae are
groups? (1) Aplanospores
(1) Algae (2) Produced endogenously
(2) Gymnosperm (3) Motile in red algae
(3) Bryophytes Called meiospores as these are produced by meiotic
(4)
(4) Pteridophytes division

105.Anteriorly placed, equal, 2-8 apical flagella are 111. The first vascular terrestrial plant group is
characteristic to (1) Bryophyta
(1) BGA (2) Pteridophyta
(2) Green algae (3) Gymnosperm
(3) Red algae (4) Angiosperm
(4) Brown algae
112,In Pinus
106.Arificial system of classificaion as given by Linnaeus is not Male gametophyte fuses with the egg cell in the embryo
acceptable nowadays because (1)
sac
Closely related species were grouped together as it was Pollen tube releases male gametes into the male
(1)
based on a few characters (2)
gametophyte
Vegetative and sexual characters were given equal (3) Male gamete fuses with egg cell in archegonium
(2)
weightage
(4) Pollen tube releases male gamete into seed
This system used gross superficial morphological and
(3) internal characters and forms relationships between 113.Majority of pteridophytes are homosporous, but some
different taxa produce two kinds of spores, such as
Consideration of stamens, carpels and other floral (1) Selaginella and Salvinia
(4)
characters was not needed
(2) Lycopodium and Equisetum
107.Mark the correct option w.r.t phenetics. (3) Dryopteris and Pteris
a. It is based on all observable characteristics
b. Number and codes are assigned to all the characters (4) Lycopodium and Salvinia
c. Few characters are given more importance
114.One of the adapive features of pines that helps them to
(1) a and c
withstand in extreme conditions is
(2) All a, b and c
(1) Thin cuticle
(3) All except c (2) Sunken stomata
(4) All except a (3) Broad leaf
108.The pteridophyte which does not belong to Pteropsida is (4) Pinnately compound leaf
(1) Adiantum

(2) Pteris
(3) Equisetum
(4) Dryopteris

12
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26 _TYM(P2)-TE05D

in plants
115.Match the following columns and choose the Correct 120.For trapping light, light harvesting complex
option. Contains
a
ColumnI Column l (1) Chlorophyll only
la.Pyrenoids 0 Hydrocolloid (2) Many pigments except chlorophyll a
Coralloid (3) Only chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
) Fungal association with roots
roots a
(4) Many accessory pigments along wih chlorophyll
c.Mycorrhiza (ii)l|Storage body
121.In the experiment conducted by TW. Engelmann on
Associated with N2-fixing
Mcvanobacteria Cladophora, the aerobic bacteria were found to be
accumulated mainly in the region of
(1) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i) (1) Green light
(2) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(ii), d-(iv) (2) Blue and green light
(3) a-(i), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii) (3) Blue and red light
(4) a-(iv), b-(), c-(ii), d-(i) (4) Yellow light

116.Bryophytes are called 122.Photosynthetic saturation in C3 plants occurs of

i.
Amphibians of plant kingdom CO2 Concentration.
i. First embryophytes Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
ii. First tracheophytes
The correct one(s) islare (1) At 36O ulL-1
ii
(1) iand
(2) At 350 uIL-1
(2) iiand ii
(3) iand iii (3) At 400 ulL-1

(4) i
only (4) Only beyond 450 ulL-1

117.How many of the given plants have archegonia as well as 123.Bell jar experiment to demonstrate the essentiality of air in
they produce seeds? the growth of green plants and discovery of oxygen were
done by
Cycas, Volvox, Selaginela, Cedrus, Ginkgo, Mustard,
Marchantia (1) Ruben
(2) P. Mitchell
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) T. W. Engeimann

(3) 2
(4) Joseph Priestley
(4) 5 124.During Hatch and Slack pathway, OAA in CA plants is
formed in
118.Consider the following statements and choose the correct
option. (1) Xylem
Statement A : Protonema is formed in mosses and
(2) Mesophyll cells
liverworts.
Statement B: Protonema represents sporophytic stage of (3) Bundle sheath cell
bryophyte. (4) Trichome cell
(1) Only (A) is correct
125.Select the correct option w.r.t. the factors affecing
(2) Only (B) is correct photosynthesis.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect (1 Maximum photosynthesis takes place in red and green

(4) Both (A) and (B) are correct light of visible spectrum
There is a linear relationship between incident light and
119.Proton carrier in ETS of thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts (2) CO2 fixation at low light intensities

(1) Diffuses protons from lumen to stroma

(3) Light durationdoes not affect overall photosynthesis
Functions to create proton gradient across thyiakoid Age and orientation of leaves are not the factors which
(4) affect photosynthesis
(membrane
(3) Causes structural changes in Fo particle

(4) Increases pH in lumen

13
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26 TYM(P2)-TEO5D

126.Which among the given, transfers electrons between PS

II
131.During Calvin cycle, the most crucial step involves
and cytochrome Bgf complex? (1) Combination of CO2 with ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate
(1) Plastoquinone (2) Formation of carbohydrate
(2) Plastocyanin (3) Production of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate
(3) Feredoxin (4) Utilisation of ATP in reduction process
(4) PS I

132.Photorespiration occurs in plants

127.Read the following statements and choose the correct (1) Having Kranz anatomy
option.
Statement PS I the reacion centre chlorophyl a has
A : In
Performing Calvin cycle in mesophyll cells and there is
(2)
an absorption peak at 700 nm. single carboxylation step
Statement B: The light harvesting complex of the (3) Having dimorphic chloroplast
photosystems does not have any chlorophyll a molecule.
(1) Only statement A is correct Showing dual carboxylation steps in different types of
(4)
cells.
(2) Both statements A and B are correct
133.The assimilatory powers required to synthesise one
(3) Only statement B is correct molecule of glucose in Calvin cycle is
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (1) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH
128.The dual activity of RuBisCO is found in (2) 2 ATP and 3 NADPH
(1) Maize (3) 12 ATP and 18 NADPH
(2) Sorghum (4) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
(3) Sugarcane 134."Formation of malic acid occurs in A of leaves and
(4) Wheat
carboxylation occurs in bundle sheath cells of plants
having Kranz anatomy." B.
129.Which of the following is an internal factor that affects Select the option that correctly fills the blanks A and
photosynthesis?
(1) A
-Mesophyll cells, B - First
(1) Humidity (2) A -Cells vascular tissue, BSecond
of

(2) Amount of chlorophyll

(3) A -
– Epidermal cells, B First
(3) Temperature
(4) A-Mesophyll cells, B-Second
(4) Water
135.Read the following statements of Assertion (A) and Reason
130.Match the following columns and select the correct option. (R).
column-! Column-ll Assertion(A): Hydrogen ions that are produced by the
splitting of water accumulate within the lumen of the
Primary CO) acceptor in C3 thylakoids.
a.|Phosphoglycolate 0 plants Reason (R): Splitting of the water molecules takes place on
|Phosphoenol the inner side of the thylakoid membrane.
pyruvate (i) |2 carbon compound in the light of the above statements, choose the correct
option.
lRuBisCO Primary CO2 acceptor in C4
|(i) (1) Both (A) and (R) are false statements
plants
lMost abundant enzyme on (2) (A) is true but (R) is false statement
RuBP (iv)
|earth Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(3)
(1) a(ii), b(v),
explanation of (A)
c(), d(i)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(i) (4)
explanation of (A)
(3) a(i), b(V), c(), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b (i), c(iv), d()

SECTION-B

14
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26 TYM(P2)-TEO5D

136.Dryopteris differs from Marchantia as the former does not 142.Mark the odd one w.r.t. ploidy in mosses
have (1) Protonema
Male and female sex organs on the different
(1) (2) Capsule
gametophytes
(3) Rhizoid
(2) True root, stem and leaves
(4) Antherozoid
(3) Independent sporophyte
(4) Event precursor to seed habit
143.The experiment through which the first action spectrum of
photosynthesis was described was performed by
137.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. bryophytes. (1) TW. Engelmann
(1) Commonly growing in moist and shaded areas
(2) Cornelius van Niel
(2) Dependent on water for sexual reproduction (3) Joseph Priestley
(3) Lack true roots, stem and leaves (4) Jan Ingenhousz
(4) Zygote undergoes reduction division to form spore
144.Read the following statements and choose the incorrect
138.Gymnosperms differ from ferns in having/being one(s) w.r.t. chemiosmotic hypothesis.
(a) Breakdown of proton gradient leads to synthesis of ATP.
(1) Embryophytes (b) CFo part of ATP synthase is embedded in thylakoid
(2) Vascular tissues membrane and caries out facilitated diffusion of protons
across the membrane.
(3) Ovule (c) Breakdown of the gradiernt provides enough energy to
(4) Archegonia cause a conformational change in the CFo particle of ATP
synthase.
139.First stage of gametophyte in mosses is
(1) Only (c)
(1) Leafy stage
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(2) Upright, slender axis bearing spirally arranged leaves
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(3)
Creeping, green, branched and frequently filamentous
stage (4) All (a), (b) and (c)

(4) The stage which bears sex organs 145.In Hatch-Slack pathway, C4 acid is converted into Cg acid
and vice-versa in sugarcane leaf, respectively in
140.Consider the following statements and mark them as true
() or false (F) and choose the correct option. (1) Epidermal cell and mesophyll cell
A. Fucus has air bladders in the fronds.
B. In Ulothrix the vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall (2) Mesophyll and bundle sheath cell
usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating. (3) Bundle sheath cell and mesophyll cell
C. Red algae usually reproduce vegetatively by
fragmentation. (4) Mesophyll lysosomes and mesophyll chloroplast
146.According to chemiosmotic theory, ATP synthesis requires
l1)|F|FT all, except
e)FTT (1) NADP reductase
(3)TTE (2) Proton gradient
(3) Proton pump

(1) (1) (4) ATP synthase

(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

141.Sporophyte is dominant plant body of

(1) Sphagnum
(2) Marchantia
(3) Laminaria
(4) Psilotum

15
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26_TYM(P2)-TE05D

147.Read the following statements and mark the correct option. 149.Which of the following is/are the first product(s) in
() Grana lamellae have both PS-l and PS-II. photorespiration when RuBP binds with O2?
(i) pH inside the thylakoid lumen decreases when HT (1) Phosphoglycolate and phosphoglycerate
gradient is established across thylakoid membrane.
protons are (2) Glycerate
(ii) During reduction of NADP to NADPH +
H

removed from thylakoid lumen. (3) Glycine and phosphoglycerate

(iv) Melvin Calvin used radioactive 14C in a dicot plant to (4) Serine
elucidate path of carbon in biosynthetic phase of
photosynthesis. 150.Which of the following plants respond to higher
temperatures and show higher rate of photosynthesis?
(1) () and (ii) are correct (a) Tomato
(2) () and (i) are correct (b) Maize
(c) Bell pepper
(3) () and (iv) are correct (d) Sorghum
(4) () and (i) are incorrect (1) (a) and (c)
148.Which of the following not a product of photochemical (2) (b) and (c)
reaction of photosynthesis?
(3) (b) and (d)
(1) CO2
(4) (a) and (d)
(2) O2

(3) ATP
(4) NADPH

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151,Animals that do not have true coelom belongs to the phylum 153.Choose the correct match w.r.t. the animals and their
A and the triploblastic animals that do not have Common names
coelom belongs to the phylum B Animal Common names
Fill in the blanks A and B with appropriate option.
(1)lLimuluslLac insect
A B
ll(2)lAsterias!Cuttlefish
(1)||PlatyhelminthesCtenophora
|(3) Pila Apple snail
(2)||Aschelminthes Coelenterata
Platyhelminthes
(4)|Sepia Devil fish
(3)||Aschelminthes
(4)PlatyhelminthesCoelenterata (1) 1

(2) 2
(1) (1)
(3) 3
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) 4
154.Select the correct option w.rt digestion in Scypha.
(4) (4)
in (1)Complete digestive system present
152.Bilateral symmetry and triploblastic condition is observed
adult stage of (2) Intracellular digestion

(1) Pila (3) Incomplete digestive system present

(2) Ophiura (4) Extracellular digestion
(3) Nereis
(4) Obelia

16
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26_TYM (P2)-TE05D

155.Which is not true about the cnidarians? 161,The ciliated comb plates in Pleurobrachia are meant for

(1) Theyare usually unisexual (1) Reproduction

(2) Metagenesis is observed (2) Digestion
(3) Metamerism is present (3) Protection

(4) Mouth is present on hypostome (4) Locomotion

156.Which of the following animals has both hooks and suckers 162.True segmentation and bilateral symmetry is present in
as adaptations for parasitism? animals which belong to the phylum
(1) Fasciola (1) Chordata
(2) Taenia solium (2) Coelenterata
(3) Ascaris (3) Porifera
(4) Ctenophora
(4) Nereis
157.Complete the following analogy by selecting the correct 163.Assertion (A): Aschelminthes are commoniy known as
option. roundworms.
Nephridium: Excretion :: Parapodia : Reason (R): The body of aschelminthes is circular in the
cross-section.
(1) Digestion In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

(2) Circulation Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
(1 the correct explanaion of the Assertion
(3) Excretion
(4) Locomotion Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
(2) not
the correct explanation of the Assertion
:
158.Consider the following characteristics (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
a. Radially symmetrical animal
b. Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statementS
c. Reproduce only by sexual means
d. Indirect development 164.The former is a sessile and cylindrical form whereas the
Which of the following organisms is best described on the latter is umbrella-shaped and free-swimming form of
basis of above mentioned characteristics? coelenterates.' The former and the latter respectively, are
(1) Ctenoplana (1) Polyp; Medusa
(2) Obelia (2) Medusa; polyp
(3) Aurelia (3) Aurelia; Adamsia

(4) Physalia Sexually reproducing stage; Asexually reproducing

(4)
stage
159.The ability of an organism to replace its lost or damaged
parts of the body is called 'X' and it is seen in 'Y'. Select the 165.Complete digestive tract with distinct mouth and anus was
option that correcly identifies 'X' and 'Y. observed for the first time in the members of the phylum
- (1) Aschelminthes
(1) X- Parthenogenesis, Y Ascaris
(2) Annelida
(2) X- Metamorphosis, Y -Pleurobrachia
(3) X- Regeneration, Y - Planaria (3) Platyhelminthes
(4) X- Endoparasitism, –Fasciola
Y
(4) Coelenterata

160.Consider the following statements w.r.t circulatory system 166.Choose the organism which is dioecious, oviparous and
and select the correct option. exhibits indirect development.
Statement (A) : Open circulatory system is found in (1) Pheretima
arthropods and some molluscs.
Statement (B) : Closed circulatory system is found in (2) Taenia
annelids and chordates. (3) Hirudinaria
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are true
(4) Pila
(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are false
(3) Statement (A) is true but statement (B) is false
(4) Statement (A) is false but statement (B) is true

17
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26_TYM(P2)-TE05D

167.Water vascular system performs all of the following 174.AIl of the following features are correct for non-chordates
functions, except except
(1) Locomotion (1) Absence of notochord
(2) Capture and transport of food (2) Absence of gill slits

(3) Regeneration (3) Presence of dorsal heart in all non-chordates

(4) Respiraion (4) Presence of ventral solid double nerve cord

168.Economically harmful insect is 175.Animals which body cavity is not completely lined by
mesoderm, instead, mesoderm is scattered as pouches,
(1) Locusta also show
(2) Bombyx (1) Bioluminescence
(3) Apis (2) Internal fertilisation
(4) Laccifer (3) Direct development only
169.Unlike echinoderms, the annelids show (4) Regeneration
176.Read the following statements and state them as true (T)
(1) Presence of true coelom or

(2) Radial symmetry false(F).

A. In molluscs, the anterior head region has sensory
(3) Presence of water vascular system tentacles.
B. Members of phylum Arthropoda possess calcareous
(4) Presence of metamerism
endoskeleton.
170.Cho0se the correct set which contains only diploblastic C. In Platyhelminthes, fertilisation is external.
animals.
(1) Physalia, Adamsia, Fasciola
(2) Pennatula, Sea anemone, Taenia
(3) Gorgonia, Meandrina, Adamsia 3) FTT
(4) Adamsia, Ancylostoma, Meandrina (4)|T
171.Common feature between Saccoglossus and Anopheles (1) (1)
are all, except
(2) (2)
(1) Open circulatory system
(3) (3)
(2) Complete digestive tract
(4) (4)
(3) Mulicellularity
177.What is true about Chaetopleura, Sepia and Pinctada?
(4) Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen
(1) Body is segmented and protected by chitinous shell
172.Stomochord, a structure similar to notochord is present in over
A
soft and spongy layer of skin forms mantle
(1) Echinoderms ( visceral hump
(2) Arthropods They are usually monoecious and viviparous with direct
(3
development
(3) Hemichordates
(4) Radula, a file like rasping organ is present for feeding
(4) Chordates
178.How many of the features given in the box below are
173.Which of the following animals is hermaphrodite? present in arthropods?
(1) Spider Bilateral symmetry, Coelom, Segmentation, Three germ
(2) Sponge |layers
(3) Ascaris (1) One
(4) Cockroach (2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

18
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26_TYM(P2)-TEO5D

179.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t the animal illustrated in 182.How many organisms among the following are triploblastic?
the figure given below. (a) Obelia
(b) Spongilla
(c) Ctenoplana
(d) Taenia
Choose the correct option.
(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Two
183.Lateral appendages which help in swimming are present in
(1) Pheretima
(2) Nereis
(3) Ascaris
(4) Taenia

184.External fertilisation is the feature of

(1) Nereis
(1) Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate
(2) Hirudinaria
(2) Body is divided into proboscis, collar and trunk
(3) Ascaris
(3) Fertilisation is internal and development is indirect
(4) Taenia
Circulatory system open and respiration takes place
(4 through gills 185.Cucumaria and Ophiura belong to the phylum
180.0rgan system level of organisation is represented by (1) Hemichordata

(1) Sycon (2) Cephalochordata

(2) Hydra (3) Echinodermata
(3) Fasciola (4) Mollusca

(4) Pheretima
181.Consider the following statements.
(a) In some animals, body is externally and internally
divided into segments without any serial repetition of any
organ. This kind of segmentation is called metameric
segmentation.
(b) The animals in which body cavity is absent are called
acoelomates.
(c) Notochord is a endodermally derived rod-like structure.
(d) Animals in which any plane that passes through the
centre does not divide them into equal halves are called
asymmetrical animals.
Choose the option that correctly mentions above
statements as true (T) or false (F).

(1)lT F T T
(2)||F T F T
T
T T

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

19
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26_TYM(P2)-TE05D

SECTION-B

186.Excretory structure of Annelids is 192,In terrestrial insects, respiration takes place through

(1) Flame cell (1) Book gills

(2) General body surface (2) Gills

(3) Nephridium (3) Book lungs

(4) Renette cell (4) Tracheal system

187.The key evolutionary advancement of flatworms is 193.An excretory organ is absent in

(1) Biradial symmetry (1) Saccoglossus

(2) Body plan (2) Dentalium

(3) Incomplete digestive tract (3) Echinus

(4) Bilateral symmetry (4) Chaetopleura

188.Body can be divided into head, thorax and abdomen in 194.Complete the analogy w.r.t. the level of body organisation in
animals.
(1) Antedon Hydra: Tissue level::Ascaris :
(2) Aedes (1) Cellular level
(3) Aplysia (2) Tissue level
(4) Ascaris (3) Acellular level
189.Which of the following is not a criteria of classification of (4) Organ-system level
animals?
195.External fertilisation with indirect development is present in
(1) Level of organisations the memtbers of all of the following phyla, except
(2) Body symmetry (1) Porifera
(3) Presence of coelom (2) Ctenophora
(4) Types of gametes (3) Echinodermata
190.What is spongin? (4) Hemichordata
Single large sized opening on the sponge for exit of 196.Pinctada is commonly known as
(1) water
(1) Tusk shell
(2) Fibrous skeleton of sponge
(2) Chiton
(3) Type of larva
(3) Pearl oyster
(4) Reproductive phase of sponge
(4) Apple snail
191.Digestive system of echinoderms is complete with mouth
on A side and anus on B side. Choose the 197.0rganism possessing umbrella-shaped medusa as the
option that fills the blanks correctly. dominant form during its life cycle is
i|A B (1) Physalia
(1)||Dorsal Ventral (2) Obelia
(2)l|Lateral Medial (3) Hydra
(3)||Medial Lateral (4) Aurelia
(4)||Ventral |Dorsal
198.Similarity in Wuchereria and Culex is
(1) (1) (1) Endoparasitism
(2) (2) (2) Anaerobic respiration
(3) (3) (3) Metamerism
(4) (4) (4) Sexual dimorphism

20
Term Exam for NEET-2024-26_TYM(P2)-TE05D

199.The correct order of flow of water in simplest sponge is

(1) Ostia - Spongocoel Osculum
(2) Spongocoel Ostia Osculum
(3) Osculum Spicule Spongocoel Ostia
(4) Ostium - Mesoglea - Osculum – Spongocoel
200.Assertion (A): Digestive system of all platyhelminths is
always Complete.
Reason (R): Platyhelminths have two openings in their
alimentary canal that seve as mouth and anus.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the

(1) correct explanation of the Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not
(2)
the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but'Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

21