INSTIL ACADEMY

1. A small stone is dropped from top of a long 2. −3i^ N

tower. The ratio of distance travelled by the 3. −2.4i^ N
particle between t = 5 s to t = 10 s and t = 15 s 4. −1.8i^ N
to t = 20 s is 7. A bullet of mass 10 gm is fired from gun of mass
1. 1 : 4 1 kg with recoil velocity of gun 5 m/s. The velocity
2. 3 : 7 of the bullet is
3. 1 : 3 1. 100 m/s
4. 5 : 7 2. 1000 m/s
2. If in vernier callipers 4 VSD coincides with 2 3. 500 m/s
MSD, then least count of vernier calliper is [given 4. 700 m/s
1 MSD = 1 mm] 8. Find minimum value of m so that system does
1. 0.2 mm not accelerate.
2. 0.1 mm
3. 0.3 mm
4. 0.5 mm
3. A ring of radius R carries a charge Q uniformly
distributed as shown in figure. The electric field 1. (M2 – M1)μ
due to the ring on the x- axis will be maximum at 2. M2μ−M1
3. M2−M1μ
4. M2−M1μ
9. Find the current through 10 Ω resistor shown in
figure

1. Zero
2. x = R
3. x=R/2
4. x=R/√2
4. In the given circuit shown in the figure, the ratio 1. Zero
of charge on 1 μF capacitor to charge on 2 μF 2. 1 A
capacitor is 3. 2 A
4. 5 A
10. In the circuit given below, for no deflection in
galvanometer, the value of R will be

1. 2:1
2. 1:1
3. 4:1
4. Data insufficient
1. 2 Ω
2. 3 Ω
3. 6 Ω
5. 4. 8 Ω
Charge q is placed at the centre of a conducting 11. A charged particle enters a magnetic field at
isolated shell, as shown in the figure. Distribution right angle to the magnetic field. The field exists
of charge on inner and outer surface of shell is for a length equal to 1.5 times the radius of circular
1. Uniform on inner and non uniform on outer path of the particle. The particle will be deviated
2. Uniform on both surfaces from its path by an angle
3. Non uniform on inner surface and uniform on
outer
4. Non uniform on both inner and outer surface
6. A force F⃗ =(2i^+4j^) N acts on the block as
shown. The force of friction acting on the block is

1. 90°
2. sin−1(23)
3. 30°
1. −2i^ N 4. 180°

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 INSTIL ACADEMY

12. Magnetic field induction at the centre of the 2. 8 J

circular loop of radius a carrying current I as 3. Zero
shown in the figure is 4. 10 J
18. A body of mass 5 kg at rest is acted upon by
two mutually perpendicular forces 6 N and 8 N
simultaneously. Its kinetic energy after 10 s is
1. 100 J
2. 200 J
1. 5μ0I/8πa 3. 500 J
2. 3μ0I/8πa 4. 1000 J
3. μ0I/4πa 19. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (χ)
4. Zero with temperature for a diamagnetic substance is
13. A charged particle moves in a magnetic best represented by figure.
field B⃗ =10i^ with initial velocity u⃗ =5i^+4j^. The
path of particle will be
1. Straight line
2. Circle
3. Helical 1.
4. None
14. The distance of centre of mass of a semi-
circular uniform wire from centre of curvature is
2.
1.

2.
3.
3.

4. 4.
15. A particle of mass m is projected with 20. Two coils of turns 5 and 10 respectively are
velocity v at an angle θ with the horizontal. The kept close to each other. Current passing through
moment of linear momentum of particle at highest the first is reduced at rate r, and emf 6 mV is
point of its trajectory about point of projection is developed across the other coil. If second coil
1. mv3 sin3 θ cos θ/2 g carries current which is reduced at the rate 2r, the
2. mv3 sin2 θ cos θ/2 g emf induced across the first coil will be
3. mv3 sin θ cos3 θ/2 g 1. 6 mV
4. 2 mv3 sin2 θ cos θ/g 2. 3 mV
16. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is 3. 9 mV
rolling with angular velocity ω. Velocity of centre 4. 12 mV
of mass v = ωR. The angular momentum of disc 21. In a series LCR a.c. circuit, the voltage
about centre is across L, C and R is 20 V each. The voltage of
source would be
1. 20/√2 V
2. 20/√3 V
3. 10/√2 V
4. 20 V
22. The power factor of a series RL circuit is 1212.
If R = 100 Ω, , then L is (f = 50 Hz)
1.
1. π H
2. √3π H
2. 3. π/√3 H
4. 2π H
3. 23. The average value of the given current
4. Zero waveform from t = 0 to t = 2T is
17. A rubber develops a force F = (–2x + 1) N,
(where x is the extension in its natural length in m).
Work done by the force when rubber is stretched
from x = 0 to x = 1 m is
1. 4 J
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 INSTIL ACADEMY

1. I0/T 29. Two thin prisms A and B are made of glass of

2. I0/2T refractive index 1.4 and 1.5. They are combined
3. I0 with each other so that this combination produces
4. 0 dispersion without deviation. If refracting angle of
24. A series LCR circuit is connected across a prism A is 5° then the refracting angle of second
source of emf E=10sin(100πt−π6). The current from prism will be
the supply is I=2sin(100πt+π12). The impedance 1. 5°
triangle is as 2. 3°
3. 2°
4. 4°
30. If we are observing 5 th dark fringe then path
difference between the two rays will be
1. 1. 7λ/2
2. 5λ/2
3. 9λ/2
4. 11λ/2
31. The momentum of the photon of de-broglie
2. wavelength 6000 Å will be
1. 1.1 × 10–27 kg m/s
2. 6.6 × 10–27 kg m/s
3. 1.1 × 10–30 kg m/s
4. 6.6 × 10–30 kg m/s
32.The angular momentum of an electron in
3.
hydrogen atom is 5h/2π. The kinetic energy of this
electron is
1. 10.2 eV
2. 12.09 eV
3. 3.4 eV
4. 4. 0.544 eV
25. A bar is subjected to axial force as shown. 33. The ionisation energy of electron (E) in second
If E is the modulus of elasticity of the bar and A is orbit of hydrogen atom is
its cross-section area. Its elongation will be 1. – 13.6 eV
2. – 3.4 eV
3. + 3.4 eV
1. Fl/3AE 4. Zero
2. 2Fl/AE 34. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage of 6
3. Fl/5AE V is used as a voltage regulator in a circuit as
4. Fl/AE shown in figure. The currents through diode, 1 kΩ
26. Magnifying power of a compound microscope and 2 kΩ resistors are respectively
is 36. If the linear magnification of objective lens is
4, then the magnifying power of eye piece will be
1. 40
2. 32
3. 144
4. 9
27. A lens behaves as a converging lens in air but a
diverging lens in water (μ w = 4/3), then the
refractive index of the material of lens will be 1. 7 mA, 3 mA, 10 mA
1. Greater than 4/3 2. 7 mA, 10 mA, 3 mA
2. 4/3 3. 10 mA, 3 mA, 7 mA
3. Less than 4/3 4. 3 mA, 10 mA, 7 mA
4. 3/2 35. What is current in given circuit, assume both p-
28. An astronomical telescope, in normal setting n junction diodes as ideal?
has magnifying power 12. If length of tube is 39
cm, then focal lengths of eyepiece and objective is 1. 1 mA
1. 3 cm, 36 cm
2. Zero
2. 4 cm, 35 cm 3. 2 mA
3. 5 cm, 34 cm
4. 1 μA
4. 6 cm, 33 cm

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 INSTIL ACADEMY

36. In a hydraulic lift, used at car service station, 3. 14 P0V0

the radius of the large and small piston are in the 4. 15 P0V0
ratio of 10 : 1. What weight placed on small piston 44. A simple harmonic oscillator has time period of
will be sufficient to lift a car of mass 1000 kg? 4 s. The change in phase 34s after leaving the mean
1. 10 kg position is (in radian)
2. 20 kg 1. 3π/4
3. 50 kg 2. 3π/8
4. 100 kg 3. π/4
37. Continuity equation for a fluid is based on the 4. 2π/3
principle of the 45. Acceleration displacement (a-x) graph of a
1. Conservation of mass particle executing S.H.M. is shown in the figure. If
2. Conservation of energy tanθ = 8, the frequency of oscillation is
3. Conservation of momentum
4. Conservation of angular momentum
38. A satellite which is geostationary in a particular
orbit is taken to another orbit. Its distance from the
centre of earth in new orbit is 2 times that of earlier
orbit. The time period in new orbit is 1. 2π Hz
1. 48 H 2. ⎷2π Hz
2. 24 H 3. 2⎷2π Hz
3. 48/√2 4. 1/π Hz
4. 24/√2 46. Element with largest atomic radius among the
39. If the change in the value of g at a following is
height h above the surface of the earth is same as at
1. B
depth ‘X’ below the surface of the earth, then (h <
2. Be
< R) 3. Li
1. X = h 4. F
2. X = h2
3. X = 2h 47. Arrange Si, Be, Mg, Na and P in the increasing
4. X=h/2 order of metallic character
40. A copper rod 3 m long has a circular cross 1. P < Si < Be < Mg < Na
section of radius 1 cm. One end is kept at 100°C 2. Na < Mg < Be < Si < P
and the other at 25°C and the surface is insulated so 3. P < Si < Na < Mg < Be
4. Si < P < Mg < Na < Be
that negligible heat is lost through the surface and
thermal conductivity of copper is 400 Wm –1 K–1. 48. A : Cu+ has zero unpaired electron.
The temperature of the rod 1 m from the hot end R : In Cu, the electron is removed from 3d but not
will be from 4s.
1. 50°C 1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
2. 75°C the correct explanation of the assertion
3. 25°C 2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
4. 90°C not the correct explanation of the assertion
41. A body cools from 50°C to 40°C in 5 minutes 3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
and from 40°C to 36°C in next 5 minutes. The 4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
temperature of surrounding is 49. Which has maximum osmotic pressure?
1. 36°C 1. 200 mL of 0.2 M NaCl solution
2. 20°C 2. 200 mL of 0.1 M glucose solution
3. 33.3°C 3. 200 mL of 0.2 M sucrose solution
4. 15°C 4. 200 mL of 0.2 M urea solution
42. When a monatomic gas is heated at constant 50. The concentration term which depends on
pressure, the fraction of the heat energy supplied temperature is
which does work on the atmosphere is 1. Mole fraction
1. 1 2. Molality
2. 1/2 3. (ww)%ww%
3. 2/5 4. Molarity
4. 3/5 51. All of given options have same empirical
43. 5 moles of a monatomic gas is heated from (P 0, formula except
2V0) to (3P0 , 4V0). The change in its internal
1. CH3COOH
energy is
2. CH3COCH3
1. 10 P0V0 3. HCHO
2. 12 P0V0
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 INSTIL ACADEMY

4. HCOOCH3 Reason (R) : Electrolyte used in mercury cell is

52. The molecular mass of CaSO 4 .2H2 O is (At. paste of HgO and KOH.
mass of Ca = 40, S = 32) In light of the above statements, choose the correct
1. 190 u answer from the options given below.
2. 240 u 1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
3. 172 u the correct explanation of the assertion
4. 120 u 2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
53. A solution is prepared by adding 5 g of a solute not the correct explanation of the assertion
in 15 g of water. The mass percent of the solute in 3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
the solution is 4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

1. 25% 62. Starch is converted to maltose by the enzyme

2. 33.3% 1. Invertase
3. 50% 2. Diastase
4. 10% 3. Maltase
54. Which of the following aqueous solutions has 4. Pepsin
the highest freezing point at 1 atm? 63. The molecule which has 4 bond pairs and 1
1. 0.1 m urea lone pair of electron around central atom is
2. 0.1 m acetic acid 1. XeF6
3. 0.1 m NaCl 2. SF4
4. 0.1 m BaCl2 3. NF3
55. Incorrect thermodynamic relation for ideal 4. NH4+
solution is 64. Number of C–C σ, C–C π and C–H σ bonds in
1. ΔmixH = 0 Hexa-1, 3-dien-5-yne respectively are
2. ΔmixV = 0 1. 5, 5, 5
3. ΔG < 0 2. 5, 4, 6
4. ΔS < 0 3. 5, 3, 6
56. Select the correct statement. 4. 6, 3, 5

1. For association of a solute, i = 1 65. Species which has the minimum X-X distance
2. For complete dissociation of K2SO4, i = 2 is
3. For urea solution, i = 1 1. I2
4. For dissociation of solute, i = 1 2. Br2
57. Which of the following transitions in hydrogen 3. Cl2
spectrum produces spectral line in UV region? 4. F2
66. If 2 mol of an ideal gas undergoes free
1. 4→2 expansion at constant temperature (27°C), then heat
2. 5→3
3. 3→1
absorbed in the process will be
4. 7→3 1. –600 R
2. Zero
58. Which among the following is not a 3. –1200 R
representative element? 4. –300 R
1. Sn
67. In which of the following reaction ΔH = ΔU?
2. Ga
3. Sr 1. N2(g)+3H2(g)⇌2NH3(g)N2(g)+3H2(g)⇌2NH3(g)
4. Sc 2. H2(g)+I2(g)⇌2HI(g)H2(g)+I2(g)⇌2HI(g)
3. CaCO3(s)⇌CaO(s)+CO2(g)CaCO3(s)⇌CaO(s)+C
59. Periodic position of the element with atomic O2(g)
number 28 is 4. PCl5(g)⇌PCl3(g)+Cl2(g)PCl5(g)⇌PCl3(g)+Cl2(g)
1. 3rd period, 10th group 68. Select the correct option in the following.
2. 4th period, 7th group 1. Phosphonic acid has two P – H bonds
3. 3rd Period, 7th group 2. Orthophosphoric acid has two P = O bonds
4. 4th Period, 10th group 3. Hypophosphoric acid has no P – O – P bond
60. The correct energy order of orbitals for a 4. Pyrophosphoric acid has two P – OH bonds
multielectronic system is 69. Correct order of HEH bond angle is (E = N, P,
1. 4f > 5p > 4d > 4p As, Sb)
2. 4f > 4d > 5p > 4p 1. SbH3> AsH3> PH3> NH3
3. 5p > 4d > 4p > 4f 2. NH3> PH3> AsH3> SbH3
4. 5p > 4p > 4d > 4f 3. NH3> PH3> SbH3> AsH3
61. Assertion (A) : Mercury cell gives a constant 4. PH3> NH3> AsH3> SbH3
cell potential of 1.35 V. 70. The ion which is coloured not due to d-d
transition, is
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 INSTIL ACADEMY

1. [Cu(NH3)4]2+
2. [Ni(H2O)6]2+
3. [Fe(H2O)6]3+
4. MnO-4 1. CH3–CH=CH−CH3CH3–CH=CH−CH3
71. Consider the given table. 2. CH3–CH2–CH=CH2CH3–CH2–CH=CH2
Substance pH
A 2 3.
4. CH3–CH2–CH2−CH3CH3–CH2–CH2−CH3
B 3 77. Which of the following will be most easily
C 4 dehydrated
The correct order of increasing H + ion
concentration is
1. B<A<C
2. B<C<A 1.
3. C<B<A
4. A<B<C 2.
72. The most suitable reagent for the following
conversion is
3.

1. Na/liq. NH3
2. H2, Pd/C, quinoline
3. Zn/HCl 4.
4. H2/Ni 78. Strongest acidic compound among the
73. The only o, p-directing group which is following is
deactivating in nature 1. CH3OH
1. –OH 2. CH3COOH
2. –NH2 3. HCOOH
3. –F
4. –CH3
74. Mg 2C3 + H2 O → (X) an organic compound, (X)
is 4.
1. Ethyne 79. The compound which will react fastest with
2. Ethane NaHSO3 is?
3. Propyne 1. CH3CHO
4. Benzene 2. CH3COCH3
75. Consider the following reaction 3. PhCHO
4. PhCOCH3
80. Reagent used in Etard's reaction is
1. K2Cr2O7
2. Cr2O3
the product (X) is 3. CrO2Cl2
4. KMnO4

1. 81. .
Here A and B respectively are

1.
2.

2.

3.
3.
4.
4.
76. Among the following compounds, which one is
the major product of the following reaction?

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 INSTIL ACADEMY

2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is

not the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
82. 91.During amplification of gene of interest using
Major product B is PCR, which of the following is most likely to occur
1. Ether when the mixture is heated to a temperature greater
2. Ester than 90°C?
3. Acetal 1. Primers anneal to the template DNA
4. Anhydride 2. DNA polymerase activity increases
83. Correct order of K a of carboxylic acid 3. DNA molecule denatures
derivatives among the following is 4. Primer extension occurs to synthesise new
DNA
1. CF3COOH > CH3COOH > CH3CH2COOH
2. CF3COOH > CH3CH2COOH > CH3COOH 92.PCR is used for
3. CCl3COOH > CF3COOH > HCCl2COOH 1. Reverse transcribing RNA into DNA
4. CCl3COOH > HCCl2COOH > CF3COOH 2. Amplifying DNA
84. Number of chiral carbon present in open chain 3. Digesting DNA
structure of fructose are 4. Separation of DNA fragments
1. 2
93.Read the following statements
2. 3 Statement-A : Restriction enzymes are obtained
3. 4 only from eukaryotes.
4. 5 Statement-B : The first discovered restriction
85. Water soluble vitamin is endonuclease was EcoRI.
Choose the correct option.
1. Retinol 1. Both statements are correct
2. Calciferol
3. Riboflavin
2. Both statements are incorrect
4. Tocopherol 3. Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
4. Statement B is correct but A is incorrect
86. During ‘Denaturation of protein’ 94.Site of syngamy and triple fusion in the
1. The hydrogen bonds get disturbed and protein is flowering plant is
called native protein 1. Chalaza
2. 1°, 2°, and 3° structures of proteins are destroyed 2. Anther
hence pH of protein changes
3. Endosperm
3. The protein is subjected to physical or chemical
change and converted into its native form 4. Embryo sac
4. The globules unfold, helix get uncoiled and protein 95.Cells of which part of ovule have abundant
loses its biological activity reserve food materials and are enclosed within the
integuments?
87. Which among the following is an essential
1. Micropyle
amino acid?
2. Chalaza
1. Histidine 3. Nucellus
2. Alanine 4. Funicle
3. Proline
96.The initiation codon for translation is
4. Serine
1. AUG
88. Which among the following is purine base? 2. UAA
1. Cytosine 3. UAG
2. Adenine 4. UGA
3. Thymine 97.Choose the incorrect match.
4. Uracil 1. Testicular lobules in each testis – 250
89. CH4+O2----ΔMo2O3-→A+H2O Product A is 2. Mammary lobes in each breast – 15-20
1. CH3OH 3. Sperm count in a healthy human male per
2. HCHO ejaculate – 200-300 million
3. HCOOH 4. Number of primary follicles in each ovary at
4. CO2
puberty in a healthy human female – 6000-
90. A : Vicinal dihalides on heating with zinc dust 8000
forms an alkene. 98.Animals that have had their DNA manipulated
R : Dihalides in which two halogen atoms are to possess and express an extra gene are known as
attached to two adjacent carbon atoms are known 1. Genetically adapted organisms
as vicinal dihalides. 2. Transgenic animals
1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is 3. Resistant animals
the correct explanation of the assertion 4. Alien animals
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 INSTIL ACADEMY

99.The disease malaria is spread by a vector which 106.Which layer of the cell envelope prevents the
belongs to class bacterium from bursting or collapsing?
1. Crustacea 1. Plasma membrane
2. Perissodactyla 2. Glycocalyx
3. Insecta 3. Cell wall
4. Arthropoda 4. Capsule
100.The genetic defect of adenosine deaminase 107.Membrane bound minute vesicles that contain
(ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by various enzymes, present in both plants and
1. Introducing ADA gene into bone marrow stem animals are called
cells at an early embryonic stage Options:
2. Enzyme replacement therapy 1. Vacuoles
3. Periodic infusion of genetically engineered 2. Macrobodies
lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA 3. Microbodies
4. Administering adenosine deaminase activators 4. Centrosomes
101.Select the correct statements w.r.t. plasma 108.Which one exerts the greatest control over the
membrane. body’s responsiveness to changing conditions?
(a) Tail of lipid is polar whereas head is non-polar 1. Epithelial tissue
(b) Integral proteins are totally or partially buried 2. Muscular tissue
in the membrane 3. Neural tissue
(c) In human, the membrane of the RBC has 4. Connective tissue
approximately 40 percent protein and 52 percent 109.The most abundant protein in the whole of
lipids biosphere, is
(d) Proteins move laterally within overall bilayer of 1. RuBisCO
lipid 2. Collagen
(a) and (b) 3. Keratin
(b) and (c) 4. Myoglobin
(a) and (c) 110.The epithelium which is made of a single thin
(b) and (d) layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries is
102.Which of the given is correct difference found in
between prokaryotes and eukaryotes? 1. PCT of nephron
1. Prokaryotes have RNA while eukaryotes have 2. Walls of blood vessels
DNA only 3. Inner surface of hollow organs like
2. Prokaryotes have nucleoid, eukaryotes have bronchioles
nucleus 4. Stomach and intestine
3. Prokaryotes have ribosomes in cytoplasm 111.Biomolecule that is not obtained in acid
while eukaryotes have ribosomes only inside soluble fraction is
organelles 1. Glucose
4. Cell wall is absent in prokaryotes but present 2. Alanine
in all eukaryotes 3. Cholesterol
103.Select the mismatch. 4. Ribose
1. Nucleus – Robert Brown 112.Alveolar walls are lined by
2. Cell theory – Matthias Schleiden and 1. Simple squamous epithelium
Theodore Schwann 2. Stratified squamous epithelium
3. Mesosomes – George Palade 3. Compound cuboidal epithelium
4. Cell membrane – Singer and Nicolson 4. Ciliated squamous epithelium
104.A polyribosome is 113.The family Felidae
1. Association of larger and smaller subunit of (a) Includes lion, tiger, cat and dogs
ribosome (b) Is included in order Carnivora
2. Chain of ribosomes attached to ER (c) Has some features common to Canidae
3. Inclusion bodies of prokaryotes Choose the incorrect one(s).
4. Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA (a) only
105.Chloroplast is not considered as part of the (b) and (c)
endomembrane system because (a) and (c)
1. It is double membrane bound structure (b) only
2. It is not involved in oxidation of fats 114.Systematics is different from taxonomy as the
3. Its functions are not co-ordinated with the former
functions of cell organelles of endomembrane 1. Does not include identification of organisms
system 2. Includes evolutionary study of organisms
4. It stores starch 3. Is based only on characterisation of organisms

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 INSTIL ACADEMY

4. Includes characterisation, identification and e. It is used in criminal identification and forensics

nomenclature of organisms 1. All statements are correct
115.In animals, centriole duplication occurs in 2. Only d is incorrect
1. S phase 3. d & e are incorrect
2. G1 phase 4. Only b is incorrect
3. M phase 123.Read the following four statements (A – D).
4. G2 phase A. During DNA replication, adenosine pairs with
116.Which one of the following phases is not the uridine.
part of interphase of cell cycle? B. In the process of translation there is transfer of
1. G1 phase genetic information from a polymer of nucleotides
2. M phase to synthesize a polypeptide.
3. S phase C. Sigma factor is involved in chain termination in
4. G2 phase transcription.
117.During ______, bivalent chromosomes are D. Human genome has 30,000 genes.
formed. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
1. Pachytene 1. Three
2. Leptotene 2. Two
3. Diplotene 3. Four
4. Zygotene 4. One
118.Which of the following condition 124.The expressed sequences in processed RNA are
does not favour the formation of oxyhemoglobin at called
alveolar site? 1. hnRNA
1. High partial pressure of O2 2. snRNA
2. High pH of blood 3. Sense strand
3. Low partial pressure of CO2 4. Exons
4. Higher temperature 125.Recombination frequencies can be utilized in
119.In humans, route passage of air from lungs to predicting the sequence of genes on the
atmosphere is chromosome was suggested by
1. Alveoli → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Trachea 1. T.H. Morgan
→ Larynx → Pharynx → Nasal cavity 2. Mendel
2. Alveoli → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Trachea 3. A.H. Sturtevant
→ Pharynx → Larynx → Nasal cavity 4. Sutton and Boveri
3. Alveoli → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Trachea 126.Sickle cell anaemia is due to mutation of
→ Pharynx → Larynx → Nasal cavity 1. CTC to CAC
4. Alveoli → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Trachea 2. CTG to CAG
→ Larynx → Pharynx → Nasal cavity 3. CAG to CTC
120.Select a membrane that is not a part of the 4. CGC to CAC
diffusion membrane. 127.Select the correct match
1. Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli 1. F1 progeny : Always resembles both the
2. Endothelium of alveolar capillaries parents
3. Cellular basement membrane between 2. Pure line : Produced by continuous cross-
squamous epithelium of alveoli and capillaries pollination
4. Acellular basement substance between 3. Gregor Mendel : Conducted artificial
squamous epithelium of alveoli & capillaries pollination experiments on true breeding pea
121.The partial pressure of O 2 in the vessel lines
carrying blood directly from heart to lungs is 4. Test cross : Determines the phenotype of
1. 95 mmHg F2 plants
2. 40 mmHg 128.Match the column I with column II and choose
3. 45 mmHg the correct option.
4. 104 mmHg
Column I Column II
122.Consider the following statements regarding
DNA fingerprinting and select the right option A single gene exhibiting more than
a. The technique was initially developed by Alec a. Alleles (i)
one phenotypic expression.
Jeffreys
b. It includes hybridisation using labelled VNTR b. Genes (ii) The units of inheritance
probe
c. Sensitivity of the technique has been increased Forms of a gene which codes for a
c. Pleiotropy (iii)
by the use of PCR pair of contrasting traits.
d. Sequences used for DNA fingerprinting
generally code for many proteins
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 INSTIL ACADEMY

1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and reason

Multiple Presence of more than two alleles for
d. (iv) is the correct explanation of assertion
allelism a gene
2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but reason is
not the correct explanation of assertion
1. a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
2. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) 4. Both Assertion and Reason are false
3. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) statements
4. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 136.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. mutation
129.According to 2011 census report, the theory.
population growth rate in India was ______ 1. Mutations may occur in any direction
percent. Choose the option which fills the 2. Mutations are inheritable in nature
blank correctly. 3. They are slow and gradual changes that are
1. Less than 2 always induced by pollution
2. More than 2 4. Mutations are the raw material of evolution
3. More than 3 137.Lippes loop is an example of
4. More than 4 1. Medicated IUD
130.Which of the following is a component of oral 2. Non-medicated IUD
contraceptive pills? 3. Copper releasing IUD
1. Oxytocin 4. Implant
2. Relaxin 138.The most significant change in human
3. Progesterone evolution is regarded as
4. Cortisol 1. Evolution of language
131.Choose the odd one w.r.t. adaptive radiation in 2. Erect posture
Australia 3. Increase in cranial capacity
1. Wombat 4. Bipedal gait and binocular vision
2. Bandicoot 139.Statement-A : Lactational amenorrhoea has
3. Sugar glider been reported to be effective upto a period of six
4. Flying squirrel months following parturition.
132.The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium will not be Statement-B : Side effects are almost nil and failure
affected by rate is high in case of natural methods of
1. Natural selection contraception.
2. Genetic drift 1. Both statements are correct
3. Random mating in a large population 2. Both statements are incorrect
4. Mutations 3. Only statement A is correct
133.Method of ART in which a sperm is directly 4. Only statement B is correct
injected into ovum is 140.Read the following statements and select
1. ICSI the correct option.
2. IUT Statement A: Euglenoids have pigments identical to
3. ZIFT those in higher plants.
4. GIFT Statement B: Euglenoids behave as heterotrophs
134.Assertion (A) : Lack of menstruation may be when deprived of sunlight.
indicative of pregnancy. 1. Only statement A is incorrect
Reason (R) : Menstruation occurs only if the 2. Only statement B is incorrect
released ovum is not fertilised. 3. Both statements are correct
In the light of above statements, select 4. Both statements are incorrect
the correct option. 141.When a flower cannot be divided into two
1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and reason similar halves by any vertical plane passing
is the correct explanation of assertion through the centre, it is called
2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but reason is 1. Ebracteate flower
not the correct explanation of assertion 2. Zygomorphic flower
3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false 3. Actinomorphic flower
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false 4. Asymmetric flower
statements 142.Water containing cavities are seen inside
135.Assertion (A) : All venereal diseases are vascular bundles of
completely curable. 1. Dicot root
Reason (R) : If detected at any stage and treated 2. Monocot stem
properly. 3. Dicot stem
In the light of above statements, select 4. Monocot root
the correct option. 143.Stele comprises of
1. Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm
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 INSTIL ACADEMY

2. Pericycle, vascular bundles and pith be associated with decrease in sex hormones such
3. Cortex, endodermis and pith as estrogen is
4. Cambium, cork cambium and cortex 1. Myasthenia gravis
144.Algin is present in the cell wall of 2. Gout
1. Chara 3. Osteoarthritis
2. Polysiphonia 4. Osteoporosis
3. Volvox 153.Totipotency is
4. Laminaria 1. The ability of an individual to tolerate extreme
145.Read the following statements and select conditions
the correct option. 2. The ability of plant to reduce the alkalinity of
Statement A: All protozoans are heterotrophs. the soil
Statement B: Protozoans are believed to be 3. The capacity of an explant or a cell to generate
primitive relatives of animals. a whole plant
1. Only statement A is correct 4. The tendency of fusion of protoplasts, belong
2. Only statement B is correct to two different plants
3. Both statements are incorrect 154.Find the odd one for sewage treatment plant.
4. Both statements are correct 1. Primary treatment is a physical process
146.How many cells are present in egg apparatus of 2. Secondary treatment involves usage of
embryo sac of a typical angiosperm? heterotrophic microbes
1. 6 3. Flocs contain masses of bacteria and fungi
2. 4 4. BOD of waste water is greatly reduced during
3. 2 primary treatment
4. 3 155.Which of the given is used as an
147.Mesophyll cells are divided into palisade and immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant
spongy parenchyma in patients?
1. Grass leaf 1. Statins
2. Monocot leaf 2. Streptokinase
3. Isobilateral leaf 3. Cyclosporin-A
4. Dicot leaf 4. Lipase
148.Erythroblastosis foetalis can be prevented by 156.The greater the BOD of waste water,
administering anti-Rh antibodies to 1. Lesser the amount of organic matter
1. Rh –ve mother post partum Rh +ve baby 2. More is its polluting potential
2. Rh +ve mother post partum Rh +ve baby 3. More the number of anaerobic bacteria are
3. Rh –ve mother post partum Rh –ve baby required to reduce BOD
4. Rh +ve mother post partum Rh –ve baby 4. More it is suitable for drinking
149.Mammals have the ability to produce 157.Which of the following factors increases
concentrated urine. Which regions of the nephron population density more significantly if new habitat
play a significant role in this process through is colonised?
counter current mechanism? 1. Immigration
1. Henle’s loop, Bowman’s capsule 2. Natality
2. Malpighian corpuscle, vasa recta 3. Mortality
3. Henle’s loop, vasa recta 4. Emigration
4. Bowman’s capsule 158.Which of the following statements
150.Extensions of cortex in between renal is correct w.r.t. temperature?
medullary pyramids are known as 1. Average temperature on land is constant in
1. Columns of Bertini every season always
2. Ducts of Bellini 2. It decreases progressively from the poles
3. Collecting ducts towards the equator
4. Juxtaglomerular apparatus 3. It increases from plains to the mountain tops
151.Angiotensinogen →A→A Angiotensin 4. Level of thermal tolerance of different species
I →B→B Angiotensin II. determine their geographical distribution
Identify A and B respectively in the above reaction. 159.Among the following biomes, mean annual
1. Aldosterone and Angiotensin converting rainfall will be maximum in
enzyme 1. Temperate forest
2. Aldosterone and Renin 2. Coniferous forest
3. Renin and Angiotensin converting enzyme 3. Grassland
4. ADH and Renin 4. Tropical rain forest
152.A disorder of skeletal system where bone loses 160.In which of the given conditions age pyramid
minerals and fibres from its matrix and which may of human population becomes urn shaped?

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1. Pre reproductive individuals are more than 167.An addictive compound obtained
reproductive and post reproductive individuals from Cannabis sativa which is known to affect
2. Pre reproductive individuals are equal in cardiovascular system is
number with the reproductive individuals 1. Heroin
3. Pre reproductive individuals are lesser in 2. Hashish
number than the reproductive individuals 3. Cocaine
4. Pre reproductive individuals are only 4. Caffeine
marginally more than the reproductive 168.Match the following columns and select
individuals the correct option.
161.The dough, which is used to make bread is
fermented by ___ Column-I Column-II
1. Lactobacillus acidophilus Primary CO2 acceptor in
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae a. Phosphoglycolate (i)
C3 plants
3. Leuconostoc
4. Propionibacterium sharmanii Phosphoenol
b. (ii) 2 carbon compound
162.Choose the statements as True (T) or False pyruvate
(F) Primary CO2 acceptor in
c. RuBisCO (iii)
A – Antibiotic means against life in reference to C4 plants
human beings. Most abundant enzyme on
B – Antibiotics are chemical substances, which are d. RuBP (iv)
earth
produced by some microbes and can kill or retard
the growth of other microbes 1. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
C – Antibiotic was extensively used to treat 2. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
American soldiers wounded in world war I 3. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
D – The first antibiotic discovered was penicillin. 4. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
A B C D 169.In chemiosmosis,
(1) F F T T 1. Protons are accumulated in stroma by the
(2) T F F F splitting of water
(3) F T F T 2. H+ carrier molecule removes a proton from
(4) T T T T lumen and transfer it to stroma while
transporting an electron
1. (1) 3. Breakdown of proton gradient provides energy
2. (2) to cause a conformational change in only
3. (3) F0 part of ATPase
4. (4) 4. Proton gradient is broken down due to the
163.Cuscuta growing on hedge plant is an example movement of protons to stroma through
of transmembrane channel of ATPase
1. Predation 170.Select the incorrect statement.
2. Symbiosis 1. Light duration does not affect the rate of
3. Commensalism photosynthesis
4. Parasitism 2. Dark reactions are temperature controlled
164.The cells primarily responsible for CMI are 3. Water is rarely a limiting factor in
1. Erythrocytes photosynthesis
2. Monocytes 4. Water stress, does not affect CO2 availability
3. T-lymphocytes in plants
4. Thrombocytes 171.Photosystem I is
165.A large bean-shaped organ which has a large 1. Found in both grana and stroma lamellae
reservoir of erythrocytes is 2. Associated with splitting of water
1. Liver 3. Involved only in non-cyclic flow of electrons
2. Spleen 4. A complex formed of LHC only
3. Pancreas 172.The enzyme responsible for the initial fixation
4. Thymus of CO 2 in C4 plants is
166.NACO conducts various awareness 1. PGA
programmes to educate people about 2. PEP carboxylase
1. Cancer 3. RuBisCo
2. Drug abuse 4. PEP synthetase
3. AIDS 173.In molluscs, mouth contains a file-like rasping
4. Alcohol addiction organ for feeding called
1. Maxilla

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2. Statocyst
3. Mandible
4. Radula
174.Select the group of animals among given below
where the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm,
instead, mesoderm is present as scattered pouches
in between ectoderm and endoderm.
1. Tapeworm, Liver fluke and Hookworm
2. Roundworm, Filarial worm and Hookworm
3. Earthworm, Roundworm and Tapeworm
4. Hookworm, Roundworm and Earthworm
175.Diabetes mellitus is primarily caused due to
1. Hypersecretion of vasopressin
2. Hyposecretion of adrenocorticoids
3. Hypersecretion of insulin
4. Hyposecretion of insulin
176.A feature not exhibited by platyhelminths is
1. True metamerism
2. Dorso-ventrally flattened body
3. Hooks and suckers
4. Organ level of organisation
178.Life saving hormones are secreted by
1. Pituitary gland
2. Pineal gland
3. Adrenals
4. Thymus
179.The number of FAD molecules reduced
through Krebs’ cycle for one glucose molecule is
1. 6
2. 4
3. 2
4. 1
180.Which phytohormone can induce stem
elongation in cabbage?
1. Auxin
2. Gibberellins
3. Abscisic acid
4. Cytokinin

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