28-08-2024

4504CMD303031240006 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-1

1) Assertion (A) :- Surface tension is a vector quantity. Reason (R) :- It is force per unit length on
one side of an imaginary line drawn on liquid surface and acts perpendicular to that line.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

2) If the earth stops rotating suddenly, the value of g at a place other than poles would :-

(1) Decrease
(2) Remain constant
(3) Increase
(4) Increase or decrease depending on the position of earth in the orbit round the sun

3) According to Kepler's Laws of planetary motion, law of area is

(1) Consequence of conservation of linear momentum

(2) Consequence of conservation of angular momentum
(3) Consequence of conservation of mass
(4) Consequence of conservation of mechanical energy

4) If mass M is split into two parts m and (M – m) which are then separated by a distance, the ratio
of mass m/M that maximizes the gravitational force between the two parts is:

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

5) The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the same length and material is represented by
the four lines OA, OB, OC and OD as shown in the figure. Which line represents the thinnest wire?

(1) line OB
(2) line OA
(3) line OD
(4) line OC

6) If the density of a small planet is the same as that of the earth, while the radius of the planet
is 0.2 times that of the earth, the gravitational acceleration on the surface of that planet is :- (g =
acceleration due to gravity on earth)

(1) 0.2g
(2) 0.4g
(3) 2g
(4) 4g

7) If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble :

(1) increases
(2) remains the same
(3) is equal to the atmospheric pressure
(4) decreases

8) The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th of its weight on the surface of earth
(radius R), is :

(1) 3R
(2) 4R
(3) 5R
(4) 15R

9) A wire can be broken by applying a load of 20 kg weight. The force required to break the wire of
twice the diameter is :-

(1) 20 kg wt
(2) 5 kg wt
(3) 80 kg wt
(4) 160 kg wt

10) Load-elongation curves for two rods A and B of same dimensions are shown. If E and D represent

elasticity and ductility respectively, then

(1) EA = EB
(2) EA < EB
(3) DA = DB
(4) DA > DB

11) Four point masses each of mass m are placed at the four corners of a square of side ℓ. Net
gravitational potential energy of the system is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

12) Three liquids of density d, 2d and 3d are mixed in equal proportions of weight. The relative
density of the mixture is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Escape velocity of a body from earth is 11.2 km/s. Escape velocity, when thrown at an angle of
45° from horizontal will be :-

(1) 11.2 km/s

(2) 22.4 km/s
(3) 11.2/ km/s
(4) 11.2 km/s

14) Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of the distance. Then, the time
period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to:

(1) Rn
(2) R(n+1)/2
(3) R(n–1)/2
(4) R–n

15) Two stretched membranes of area 2 cm2 and 3cm2 are placed in a liquid at the same depth. The
ratio of the pressure on them is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 22 : 32

16) The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are
KA, KB and KC respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the

Sun S as shown in the figure. Then

(1) KA < KB < KC

(2) KA > KB > KC
(3) KB < KA < KC
(4) KB > KA > KC

17) A manometer reads the pressure of a gas in an enclosure as shown in figure. The absolute and
gauge pressure of the gas (in cm of mercury) in the enclosure is

(Take atmospheric pressure = 76 cm of Hg)

(1) 76, 20
(2) 20, 76
(3) 96, 20
(4) 20, 96

18) Three equal mass (m) are placed at vertex of an equilateral triangle of side r. Work required to

double the separation between masses will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

19) The change in the value of 'g' at a height 'h' above the surface of the earth is same as at a depth
'd'. If 'd' and 'h' are much smaller than the radius of earth, then which one of the following is
correct?

(1) d = h
(2) d = 2h
d=
(3)

(4) d = h/2

20)

If the radius of earth decreases by 10 %, the mass remaining unchanged, what will happen to the
acceleration due to gravity

(1) Decrease 19 %
(2) Increases by more than 19 %
(3) Decrease by more than 19 %
(4) Increase 19 %

21) A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The
gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Two wires, one of steel (Ysteel = 2 × 1011 N/m2) and the other of copper (YCu = 1011 N/m2) have
same length and radii. If on applying a force F, the length of steel wire increases by ℓ0, then force
required to increase the length of copper wire by same amount is :-

(1) 4F

(2)

(3)

(4) 2F

23) A sample of metal weighs 210 g in air, 180 g in water and 120 g in an unknown liquid (density of
water = 1g/cm3). Then :-

(1) the density of metal is 3 g/cm3

(2) the density of metal is 7 g/cm3
(3) the density of metal is 4 times the density of unknown liquid
(4) the metal will float on water

24)

A beaker containing a liquid of density ρ moves up in a lift with an acceleration a. The excess
pressure due to the liquid at a depth h below the free surface of the liquid is:-

(1) hρg
(2) hρ (g – a)
(3) hρ (g + a)

(4)
2hρg

25) Two bodies of mass 4m and 9m having their centres seperated by a distance of 10 metre. At
what distance from mass 4m gravitational field will be zero :-

(1) 8m
(2) 6m
(3) 4m
(4) 10m

26) Assertion (A) : Angle of contact depends upon the inclination of the solid in the liquid. Reason
(R) : Angle of contact depends on cohesive and adhesive force.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

27) Near the earth's surface time period of a satellite is hrs. Find its time period if it is at the
distance '4R' from the centre of earth :-

(1) 32 hrs.

(2)
hrs.
(3) hrs.
(4) 16 hrs.

28) When you move from equator to pole, the value of acceleration due to gravity (g) :-

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains the same
(4) first increases then decreases

29) Streamline flow is more likely for liquids with :

(i) high density (ii) high viscosity
(iii) low density (iv) low viscosity

(1) ii, iii

(2) i, ii
(3) i, iv
(4) iii, iv

30) On account of the earth rotating about its axis :-

(1) the linear velocity of objects at equator is greater than at other places
(2) the angular velocity of objects at equator is more than that of objects at poles
(3) the linear velocity of objects at all places at the earth is equal, but angular velocity is different
(4) at all places the angular velocity and linear velocity are uniform

31) The radius of a planet is R. A satellite revolves around it in a circle of radius r with angular
velocity ω0. The acceleration due to gravity on planet’s surface is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Water is flowing through a tube of non-uniform cross-section. Ratio of the radius at entry and
exit end of the pipe is 3:2. Then the ratio of velocities at entry and exit of liquid is :-

(1) 4 : 9
(2) 9 : 4
(3) 8 : 27
(4) 1 : 1

33) Starting from the centre of the earth having radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due to
gravity) is shown by :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

34) Bernoulli's equation for steady, non-viscous, in-compressible flow is based on

(1) Conservatin of angular momentum

(2) Conservation of density
(3) Conservation of momentum
(4) Conservation of energy

35) The correct graph best representing the variation of total energy (E) kinetic energy (K) and
potential energy (U) of a satellite with its distance from the centre of earth is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-2

1) The additional kinetic energy to be provided to a satellite of mass m revolving around a planet of
mass M, to transfer it from a circular orbit of radius R1 to another of radius R2(R2 > R1) is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A hole is there in the bottom of an open tank having water. If total pressure at bottom is 4 atm (1
atm = 105 Pa), then velocity of water flowing from hole (in m/s) is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) Water flows through a frictionless duct with a cross-section varying as shown in figure. Pressure P

at points along the axis is represented by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Two mercury drops (each of radius r) merge to form a bigger drop. The surface energy of the
bigger drop is : (Surface tension = T)

(1)
(2) 4πr2T
(3) 2πr2T
(4)
5) Area of liquid film is 6 × 10 cm2 and surface tension is T = 20 dyne/cm. What is the work done to
change area upto 12 × 10 cm2 :–

(1) 120 J
(2) 120 erg.
(3) 1200 J
(4) 2400 erg.

6) A particle falls from infinity to the earth. Its velocity on reaching the earth surface is :

(1) 2Rg
(2) Rg
(3)
(4)

7) A satellite is moving in a circular orbit around earth with a speed v. If its mass is m, then its total
energy will be :

(1)

(2) mv2

(3)

(4)
–

8) Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 equal to 4cm and 5cm are touching each other over a common

surface S1S2 (shown in figure). What is the radius of common surface?

(1) 4 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) 4.5cm

9)

A projectile is fired with a speed v = from the surface of earth. It escapes the gravitational
pull of earth. Its speed in interstellar space will be:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10)

A square plate of 0.1 m side moves parallel to a second plate with a velocity of 0.1 m/s, both plates
being immersed in water. If the viscous force is 0.002 N and the coefficient of viscosity is 0.01 poise,
distance between the plates in m is :-

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.05
(3) 0.005
(4) 0.0005

11) Match the column:

Column-I Column-II

(A) Potential energy of satellite (p) Positive

(B) Total energy of satellite (q) Negative

(C) Kinetic energy of satellite (r) Zero

(D) Gravitational potential energy of satellite at infinity (s) Infinite

(1) (A)-q, (B)-q, (C)-p, (D)-r
(2) (A)-r, (B)-s, (C)-p, (D)-q
(3) (A)-q, (B)-p, (C)-s, (D)-r
(4) (A)-r, (B)-q, (C)-p, (D)-s

12) A body of mass m is situated at a distance 4 Re above the earth’s surface, where Re is the radius
of earth. How much minimum energy be given to the body so that it may escape -

(1) mgRe
(2) 2mgRe

(3)

(4)

13)

If the terminal speed of a sphere of material A (density = 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous
liquid (density = 1.5 kg/m3). Find the terminal speed of a sphere of material B (density=10.5 kg/m3)
of the same size in the same liquid.

(1) 0.4 m/s

(2) 0.133 m/s
(3) 0.1 m/s
(4) 0.2 m/s
14) Statement 1 : A particle is at a height R (equal to radius of earth) from the surface of the earth.
If mass of the particle is m and acceleration due to gravity is g on the surface of earth, then its
gravitational potential energy at height R is mgR.
Statement 2 : If a particle is slowly moved in gravitational field, the work done by the external
agent is the increase in the gravitational potential energy of the particle.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

15) The bulk modulus of a spherical body is 'B'. If it is subjected to uniform pressure P, then
fractional decrease in surface area is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-1

1) A liquid mixture of A and B have PA° : PB° = 1 : 2 and have mole fraction in solution in the ratio 1 :
2 then mole fraction of A in vapour phase :-

(1) 0.33
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.20
(4) 0.52

2) What is the molarity of 0.4 N Na2CO3 solution:

(1) 0.2 M
(2) 0.1 M
(3) 0.8 M
(4) 0.6 M

3) 1 litre solution containing 490 g of sulphuric acid is diluted upto 10 litre with water. What is the
normality of the resulting solution?

(1) 0.5 N
(2) 1.0 N
(3) 5.0 N
(4) 10.0 N

4) The ratio of the elevation in boiling point for the dilute solution of FeCl3 and MgCl2 for the
equimolar dilute solution (assume complete ionisation) :-

(1) 0.75
(2) 1.0
(3) 1.50
(4) 1.33

5) From a measurement of the freezing point depression of benzene, the molecular weight of acetic
acid in a benzene solution was determined to be 100. The percentage association of acetic acid is :-

(1) 79%
(2) 93%
(3) 80%
(4) 100%

6) In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is :

(1) 500 g of solvent

(2) 100 mL of solvent
(3) 1000 g of solvent
(4) 500 mL of solvent

7) The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult's law is

(1) Benzene + Toluene

(2) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
(3) Ethanol + Acetone
(4) Acetone + Chloroform

8) Which of the following statements is correct regarding a solution of two compounds A and B
exhibiting positive deviation from ideal behaviour ?

(1) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are stronger than those between A-B.
(2) Δmix H = 0 at constant T and P
(3) Δmix V = 0 at constant T and P
(4) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are equal to those between A-B.

9) Given below the following statements:-

Statement I : Cryoscopic constant is the elevation in boiling point of one molal solution.
Statement II : Cryoscopic constant is the freezing point of one molal solution.
Statement III : Ebulloscopic constant is the depression in freezing point of one molal solution.
Identify the T/F as initials?

(1) FTF
(2) FFF
(3) FTT
(4) TFT

10) Choose the correct statement ?

(1) The boiling point of the solution falls on increasing the amount of the solute
(2) The freezing point of the solution is lowered on adding more of solvent
(3) The freezing point of the solution is raised on adding more of solute
(4) The freezing point of the solution decreases on increasing the amount of the solute.

11) For a dilute solution, Raoult's law states that:

(1) the lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute.
(2) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute.
(3) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solvent
(4) the vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of solvent.

12) The elevation of b.Pt of a solution of 10g of solute (mol. wt 100) in 100 g of solvent is ΔTb. The
value of molal elevation constant is given by :-

(1) 1
(2) 10
(3) ΔTb
(4) ΔTb/10

13) Which of the following pair of solutions are expected to be isotonic at the same temperature?

(1) 0.2 M urea & 0.2 M NaCl

(2) 0.1 M urea & 0.2 M MgCl2
(3) 0.1 M NaCl & 0.1 M Na2SO4
(4) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 & 0.1 M Na2SO4

14) Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol X ( = 150 torr) and 2 mol Y ( = 300 torr) is 240
torr. In this case :-

(1) There is negative deviation from Raoult's law

(2) There is a positive deviation from Raoult's law
(3) There is no deviation from Raoult's law
(4) Can not be decided

15) Solubility of gases in water decreases when

(1) Pressure increases
(2) Temperature decreases
(3) Temperature increases
(4) Both (1) and (2)

16) At 25°C, the highest freezing point is exhibited by 0.1M solution of :-

(1) KCl
(2) CaCl2
(3) Na3PO4
(4) Al2(SO4)3

17) At a given temperature total vapour pressure (in torr) of a mixture of volatile components A and
B is given by P = 120 – 75 XB then vapour pressure of pure A and B respectively are :-

(1) 120,75
(2) 120,195
(3) 120,45
(4) 45,120

18) E° values of Mg2+/Mg is –2.37 V, Zn2+/Zn is –0.76V and Fe2+/Fe is –0.448. Which of the following
statement is correct ?

(1) Zn will reduce Fe2+

(2) Zn will reduce Mg2+
(3) Mg oxidizes Fe
(4) Zn oxidizes Fe

19) The unit of equivalent conductivity is :

(1) Ohm cm
(2) Ohm–1 cm2 (g equivalent)–1
(3) Ohm cm2 (g equivalent)
(4) S cm–2

20) Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make salt-bridge because :

(1) Velocity of K+ is greater than that of

(2) Velocity of is greater than that of K+
(3) Velocity of both K+ and are nearly the same
(4) KNO3 is high soluble in water

21) 13.5 g of Al get deposited when electricity is passed through the solution of AlCl3. The number of
faradays used are :
(1) 0.50
(2) 1.00
(3) 1.50
(4) 2.00

22) The conductivity of 0.20 M KCl solution at 298 K is 0.0248 S cm–1. What will be its molar
conductivity ?

(1) 124 S cm2

(2) 124 cm–1
(3) 124 Ω cm2 equiv–1
(4) 124 S cm2 mol–1

23) A graph was plotted between molar conductivity of various electrolytes (NaCl, HCl and NH4OH)

and (in mol L–1). Select the correct option :-

(1) I(NaCl), II(HCl), III(NH4OH)

(2) I(HCl), II(NaCl), III(NH4OH)
(3) I(NH4OH), II(NaCl), III(HCl)
(4) I(NH4OH), II(HCl), III(NaCl)

24) A hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of pH =3 at 25°C. The reduction potential of the
electrode will be:

(1) 0.177V
(2) 0.087V
(3) –0.177V
(4) 0.059V

25) If an aqueous NaCl solution is electrolyzed, which phenomenon is not observed ? (using Pt
electrode)

(1) The concentration of Na+ ion decreases

(2) Cl2(g) is produced at the anode
(3) The solution becomes more basic
(4) H2(g) is produced at the cathode

26) E.M.F. of the cell 2Ag+ + Cu → Cu+2 + 2Ag

[Given: = –0.8 V ; = 0.3 V]

(1) –0.5 V
(2) 0.5 V
(3) –1.1 V
(4) 1.1 V

27) A cell reaction would be spontaneous if the cell potential and ΔrG are respectively:

(1) Positive and negative

(2) Negative, negative
(3) Zero, zero
(4) Positive, zero

28) Molar conductance of 0.1 M acetic acid is 7 ohm–1cm2mol–1. If the molar cond. of acetic acid at
infinite dilution is 380.8 ohm–1cm2mol–1, the value of dissociation constant will be :

(1) 226 × 10–5

(2) 1.66 × 10–3
(3) 1.66 × 10–2
(4) 3.442 × 10–5

29) Which of the following will increase the voltage of the cell with following cell reaction
Sn(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Sn+2(aq) + 2Ag(s)

(1) Increase in the size of silver rod

(2) Increase in the concentration of Sn+2 ions
(3) Increase in the concentration of Ag+ ions
(4) Decrease in the concentration of Ag+ ions

30) Which of the following solutions has the highest equivalent conductance ?

(1) 0.01M NaCl

(2) 0.050 M NaCl
(3) 0.005M NaCl
(4) 0.02M NaCl

31) The most durable metal plating on iron to protect the against corrosion is

(1) Zinc plating

(2) Nickel plating
(3) Tin plating
(4) Copper plating

32) Which of the following reaction is possible at anode:-

 +3 – ⊕ –
(1) 2Cr + 7H2O → Cr2O7 + 14H + 6e
– Θ
(2) F2 + 2e → 2F

(3)
O2 + 2H⊕ + 2e– → H2O
– Θ
(4) H2O2 + 2e → 2OH

33) If x is specific resistance (in S–1 cm) of the electrolyte solution and y is the molarity of the
solution, then Λm (in S cm2mol–1) is given by :-

(1)

(2)
1000

(3)

(4)

34) What is the amount of chlorine evolved when 2 amperes of current is passed for 30 minutes in an
aqueous solution of NaCl ?

(1) 66 g
(2) 1.32 g
(3) 33 g
(4) 99 g

35) Given below the following statements:-

Statement I : CuSO4 solution can be stored in zinc vessel, but can not be stored in silver vessel.
Statement II : On charging the lead-storage battery PbSO4(s) on anode and cathode converted into
Pb and PbO2 respectively.
Statement III : Fuel cell using H2 and O2 was used in apollo space programme.
Identify the T/F as initials?

(1) FFT
(2) FTT
(3) FTF
(4) TTF

SECTION-2

1) Normality of 0.3 M phosphorous acid is:-

(1) 0.15
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.9
(4) 0.1
2) Which of the following gas does not obey Henry's law?

(1) NH3
(2) H2
(3) O2
(4) He

3) An azeotropic mixture of two liquids has boiling point lower than either of them when it:-

(1) shows a (+ve) deviation from Raoult's law

(2) shows no deviation from Raoult's law
(3) shows (+ve) deviation from Henry's law
(4) shows (–ve) deviation from Henry's law

4) One mole of non volatile solute is dissolved in two mole of water. The vapour pressure of the
solution relative to that of water is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Osmotic pressure (in pascal) of 0.1 M aq. K4[Fe(CN)6] solution ( = 50%) at 27°C nearly is

(1) 5×0.1×0.0821×300
(2) 3×0.1×0.0821×300×105
(3) 3×0.1×8.314×300
(4) 3×0.1×8.314×300×105

6) The substance A when dissolved in solvent B shows the molecular mass corresponding to A3. The
vant Hoff's factor will be

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3

(4)

7) The correct relationship between the boiling points of dilute solutions of AlCl3(T1) and CaCl2(T2),
having the same molar concentration is
(1) T1 = T2
(2) T1 > T2
(3) T2 = T1
(4) T2 T1

8) Which solution will have least vapour pressure:

(1) 0.1 M BaCl2

(2) 0.1 M urea
(3) 0.1 M Na2SO4
(4) 0.1 M Na3PO4

9) Which of the following cell provide constant cell potential?

(1) Mercury cell

(2) Lead storage battery
(3) Leclanche cell
(4) Both (2) and (3)

10) At infinite dilution, the equivalent conductivity of CH3COONa, HCl and CH3COOH are 91, 426
and 391 mho cm2 eq–1 respectively at 25° C. The equivalent conductivity of NaCl at infinite dilution
will be

(1) 126
(2) 209
(3) 391
(4) 908

11) The direction of current in the Daniell cell when Zn and Cu electrodes are connected is

(1) from Cu to Zn in the cell

(2) from Cu to Zn out side the cell
(3) from Zn to Cu outside the cell
(4) in any direction in the cell

12) Which is not true for a standard hydrogen electrode?

(1) The hydrogen ion concentration is 1 M

(2) Temperature is 25°C
(3) Pressure of hydrogen is 1 bar
(4) It contains a metallic conductor which does not absorb hydrogen

13) Consider the reaction

Cl2(g) + 2Br– (aq) 2Cl–(aq) + Br2(l)
The emf of the cell when
[Cl– ] = [Br– ] = 0.01 M and Cl2 gas at 0.25 atm pressure will be (E° for the above reaction is = 0.29
V)

(1) 0.54 V
(2) 0.272 V
(3) 0.29 V
(4) –0.29 V

14) The number of Faradays(F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

15) The reduction potential of hydrogen half-cell will be negative if

+
(1) p(H2) = 2 atm and [H ] = 1.0 M
+
(2) p(H2) = 2 atm and [H ] = 2.0 M
+
(3) p(H2) = 1 atm and [H ] = 2.0 M
+
(4) p(H2) = 1 atm and [H ] = 1.0 M

BOTANY

SECTION-1

1) Trichomes belongs to

(1) Epidermal tissue system

(2) Ground tissue system
(3) Vascular tissue system
(4) All the above

2) Cortex is absent in

(1) Monocot stem

(2) Dicot stem
(3) Monocot root
(4) Dicot root

3) Which of the following component is not the part of epidermal tissue system ?

(1) Root hairs

(2) Stomata
(3) Endodermis
(4) Trichomes

4) Parenchymatous thin walled with intercellular spaces present in

(1) Endodermis
(2) Pericycle
(3) Cortex
(4) Secondary xylem

5) Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called

(1) Bulliform cells

(2) Complementary cells
(3) Subsidiary cells
(4) Albuminous cells

6) Endodermis is a part of

(1) Outer most larger of cortex

(2) Vascular tissue
(3) Inner most larger of cortex
(4) Hypodermis

7) Ground tissue is composed of the following, except

(1) Cortex
(2) Endodermis
(3) Phloem
(4) Pith

8) Mesophyll is made up of

(1) Sclerenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Parenchyma
(4) Meristem

9) Usually a trichome is

(1) Unicellular hair of stem

(2) Multicellular hair of stem
(3) Absorptive in function
(4) Unicellular hair of root

10) Identify the correct statement

(1) The inner walls of guard cells are thin
(2) The guard cells are dumb bell shaped in dicot plant
(3) The guard cells possess chloroplasts
(4) The inner wall of guard cell is lignified

11) Endodermis of dicot stem is also called

(1) Bundle sheath

(2) Starch sheath
(3) Mesophyll
(4) Pith

12) Statement I : Trichomes help in preventing water loss due to transpiration

Statement II : Ground tissue consists of simple tissues such as parenchyma, collenchyma and
sclerenchyma.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

13)

Epidermis consists of ______ and is ______ (layered).

(1) Sclerenchyma, multilayered

(2) Collenchyma, singlelayered
(3) Parenchyma, multilayered
(4) Parenchyma, single-layered

14)

Hypodermis of dicot stem comprises

(1) Parenchymatous cells

(2) Sclerenchymatous cells
(3) Collenchymatous cells
(4) None of above

15) Pith is absent in

(1) Monocot stem

(2) Monocot root
(3) Dicot root
(4) Dicot stem

16) On stem the epidermal hairs are called:

(1) Trichome
(2) Root hair
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Bundle sheath

17) Bulliform cells are found in the leaves of

(1) Monocot root

(2) Monocot leaf
(3) Monocot stem
(4) Dicot leaf

18) In between the vascular bundles there are a few layers of radially placed parenchymatous cells,
which constitute ________

(1) Pericycle
(2) Medullary rays
(3) Epidermis
(4) Cortex

19) In grasses, the guard cells are

(1) Bean shaped

(2) Barrel shaped
(3) Dumb-bell shaped
(4) Rectangular shaped

20) The outside of the epidermis in the shoot is often covered with a waxy layer called _____ which
prevents the loss of water.

(1) Cuticle
(2) Trichome
(3) Epiblema
(4) Endodermis

21) Identify the given type of vascular bundle

(1) Radial vascular bundle

(2) Conjoint, collateral and closed type
(3) Conjoint, collateral and open type
(4) Bicollateral type
22) Closed vascular bundles lack

(1) Pith
(2) Ground tissue
(3) Cambium
(4) Conjunctive tissue

23) When xylem and phloem are on same radius, the vascular bundles are said to be

(1) Radial
(2) Conjoint
(3) Concentric
(4) Exarch

24) Conjoint vascular bundles are found in :-

(1) Stem
(2) Leaves
(3) Root
(4) Both (1) and (2)

25) Radial vascular bundle seen in

(1) Leaf
(2) Root
(3) Stem
(4) Flower

26) Water containing cavities are present within the vascular bundles of:

(1) Monocot root

(2) Monocot stem
(3) Dicot stem
(4) Dicot root

27) Suberin layer is found in

(1) Conjuctive tissue

(2) Pericycle
(3) Hypodermis
(4) Endodermis

28) Mesophyll differentiated into palisade parenchyma and the spongy parenchyma in:-

(1) Dorsiventral leaf

(2) Isobilateral leaf
(3) Dicot root
(4) Monocot stem

29) Epiblema is

(1) Epidermis of root

(2) Epidermis of leaf
(3) Epidermis of stem
(4) All

30) Pericycle in root is/are

(1) Single layered

(2) Few layers of thick walled parenchymatous cell
(3) Composed of thick walled sclerenchymatous cells
(4) Both (2) and (3)

31) In dicot roots, initiation of lateral roots and cambium during the secondary growth takes place
by _____ cells.

(1) Parenchyma
(2) Pericycle
(3) Endodermis
(4) Epidermis

32) The number of xylem bundle in monocot root is:

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) More than 6
(4) less than 6

33) Pith is large and well develops in

(1) Dicot root

(2) Monocot root
(3) Monocot stem
(4) Dicot stem

34) Rich in starch grains, heterogenous pericycle, large pith, conjoint vascular bundles and endarch
protoxylem are characters of :-

(1) Monocot stems

(2) Monocot roots
(3) Dicot stems
(4) Monocot stem
35) The xylem and phloem are jointly situated along the same radius of vascular bundles common in

(1) Stems
(2) Leaves
(3) Roots
(4) Both (1) & (2)

SECTION-2

1) Name the structure/cells labelled as A, B and C:

(1) A - Subsidiary cell, B - Guard cell, C - Epidermal cell

(2) A - Epidermal cell, B - Guard cell, C - Subsidiary cell
(3) A - Epidermal cell, B - Subsidiary cell, C - Guard cell
(4) A - Guard cell, B - Subsidiary cell, C - Epidermal cell

2) Vascular bundles in root posses

(A) Endarch protoxylem
(B) Exarch protoxylem
(C) Xylem and phloem within a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner
(D) Xylem and phloem outside the vascular bundle.

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) C & D
(4) All

3)

Study the following and identify the cells related to stomatal apparatus.
(a) Guard cells
(b) Stomatal aperture
(c) Normal epidermal cells
(d) Subsidiary cells

(1) All
(2) (a) & (b) only
(3) (a), (b) & (d) only
(4) (a), (b) & (c) only

4) Statement I : Roots hairs help in absorption of water and minerals from the soil.
Statement II: Root hairs the unicellular elongations of the epidermal cell.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

5)

Epidermis is the surface covering of a plant body. Which of the following functions is not performed
by the epidermis?

(1) Protecting the plant from mechanical injury

(2) Protecting the plant from invasion by pathogens
(3) Preventing the loss of water from the plant, along with the cuticle
(4) Preventing the exchange of gases between the plant and environment

6) Given diagram represents which type of vascular bundle :-

(1) Radial
(2) Conjoint collateral
(3) Conjoint bicollateral
(4) Concentric

7) When xylem and phloem are separated by a strip of cambium it is called

(1) Conjoint and open

(2) Collateral and closed
(3) Bicollateral and open
(4) Concentric and closed

8) The dicot root is identified from the monocot root by the presence of

(1) Exarch xylem

(2) 2-4 xylem and phloem patches
(3) > 6 xylem bundles
(4) Large and well developed pith

9)

Figures X and Y represent the transverse section of __X__ and __Y__ respectively.
 X Y

(1) Dicot root Dicot root Dicot stem

(2) Monocot root Monocot stem

(3) Dicot stem Monocot stem

(4) Monocot stem Dicot stem

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) In the given diagram of dicot root, the different parts have been indicated by alphabets. Choose

the correct combination:-

(1) a = endodermis, b = pericycle, c = metaxylem, d = pith

(2) a = pericycle, b = endodermis, c = protoxylem, d = pith
(3) a = endodermis, b = pericycle, c = metaxylem, d = conjunctive tissue
(4) a = endodermis, b = metaxylem, c = pericycle, d = conjunctive tissue

11) Parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and the phloem in root are :-

(1) Conjuctive tissue

(2) Medullary ray
(3) Intrafascicular cambium
(4) Subsidiary cell

12) In dicot root, stele is made up of?

(I) Pith (II) Vascular bundle
(III) Pericycle (IV) Endodermis
(V) Cortex (VI) Epidermis

(1) I, II, III only

(2) I, III, IV, V
(3) I, II, III, IV, VI
(4) All of these

13) A dicot root differs from a monocot root in which of the following-

(1) Presence of epiblema

(2) Presence of pericycle
(3) Pith is small or inconspicuous
(4) Presence of radial vascular bundles

14) Stomata may be absent in

(1) Abaxial epidermis of dicot leaf

(2) Adaxial epidermis of monocot leaf
(3) Abaxial epidermis of monocot leaf
(4) Adaxial epidermis of dicot leaf

15) The vascular bundles are surrounded by a layer of thick walled _______ cells in dorsiventral leaf: -

(1) Mesophyll
(2) Epidermal
(3) Bundle sheath
(4) Hypodermis

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-1

1) The hind brain consists of :

(1) Pons + cerebellum

(2) Hypothalamus + cerebellum
(3) Medulla oblongata + cerebellum
(4) Medulla oblongata + cerebellum + pons

2)

The PNS includes

(1) central neural system and sympathetic neural system

(2) somatic neural system and autonomic neural system
(3) only sympathetic neural system
(4) only somatic neural system

3)

Which part of neuron receive impulses from another neuron?

(1) Axon
(2) Dendrite
(3) Cell body
(4) Synaptic knob

4) Layers (meninges) present over brain from outside to inside respectively are-

(1) Piamater, duramater, arachnoid

(2) Duramater, Piamater, Arachnoid
(3) Duramater, Arachnoid, Piamater
(4) Piamater, Arachnoid, Duramater

5) Read the following statements and choose to the correct sequence of events of transmission of
impulse from one neuron to the next.
I. Fusion of synaptic vesicles with presynaptic membrane and release of neurotransmitter into
synaptic cleft.
II. Binding of neurotransmitter to the receptor present on post-synaptic membrane.
III. Action potential arrives at axon-end.
IV. Ion-channels open allowing entry of ions which can generate new potential in the post-synaptic
neuron.
V. Pre-synaptic membrane depolarises.

(1) IV → V → I → III → II
(2) III → V → I → II → IV
(3) III → II → IV → V → III
(4) II → I → IV → III → V

6) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram.

A B C D
Medulla Spinal
(1) Pons Cerebellum
oblongata cord
Medulla
(2) Cerebellum Spinal cord Pons
oblongata
Spinal Medulla
(3) Cerebellum Pons
cord oblongata
Spinal Medulla
(4) Pons Cerebellum
cord oblongata
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) The electrical potential difference across the resting plasma membrane is called -
(1) Action potential
(2) Resting potential
(3) Neural potential
(4) Axon potential

8) Identify X and the correct statement associated with the X :-

(1) Cell body – contain nissl’s granules.

(2) Synaptic cleft – a gap between pre-synaptic neuron and a post-synaptic neuron.
(3) Neurotransmitters–present in electrical synapses.
(4) Axon – transmit nerve impulses away from the cell body.

9) Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t. central nervous system?

(1) Site of information processing and control.

(2) Includes brain and spinal cord.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Comprises all the nerves of the body.

10) In neurons the average resting membrane potential value is –70 mV. This minus (–) sign
indicates that :

(1) Inner side of the membrane is negative relative to the outer side
(2) Outer side of the membrane is negative relative to the inner side
(3) Both the outer and inner sides are negative
(4) Outer side of the membrane is negative and inner side is positive

11) Which function is not related to neuron ?

(1) Contractability
(2) Sensitivity
(3) Conductivity
(4) Excitability

12) Bipolar neurons are commonly :-

(1) Motor neurons

(2) Found in eye and nose
(3) Found in ganglia
(4) More abundant in adult than in children

13) The accompanied diagram shows the structure of neuron. Identify A to E.

A B C D E
Nerve Cyton or Schwann Node of Synaptic
(1)
fibre cell body cell ranvier knob
Cyton or Schwann Node of Synaptic
(2) Dendrites
cell body cell ranvier knob
Schwann Node of Synaptic
(3) Dendrites Nerve cell
cell ranvier knob
Cyton or Nerve Node of Synaptic
(4) Dendrites
cell body cell ranvier knob
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Fibres tract of different region of brain interconnect at:-

(1) Medulla
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Thalamus
(4) Pons

15) Which structure is found in white matter ?

(1) Myelinated axon

(2) Cell body
(3) Dendrons
(4) All of the above

16) Nerve impulses are initiated by nerve fibers only when the membrane shall become more
permeable to :-

(1) Adrenaline
(2) Phosphorus
(3) Sodium ions
(4) Potassium ions

17) In resting stage axonal membrane is comparatively more permeable to :-

(1) Potassium ions

(2) Sodium ions
(3) Chloride ions
(4) Phosphate ions

18) Which of the following structures are correctly paired?

(1) Forebrain and medulla oblongata

(2) Midbrain and cerebrum
(3) Brain stem and anterior pituitary gland
(4) Hindbrain and cerebellum

19) Chemical transmission of nerve impulses from one neuron to another at a synapse is by :-

(1) Cholesterol
(2) Acetylcholine
(3) Cholecystokinin
(4) ATP

20) Brain stem is made up of :-

(1) Fore brain + Hind brain

(2) Fore brain + Mid brain
(3) Fore brain + Mid brain + Hind brain
(4) Mid brain + Hind brain (exceptcerebellum)

21) Which of the following statement is correct for node of Ranvier of neuron?

(1) Neurilemma is discontinuous

(2) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
(3) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous
(4) Covered by myelin sheath

22) Which of the following is mismatched?

(1) Cerebrum – Memory

(2) Olfactory lobes – Sense of smell
(3) Cerebellum – Balance of body
(4) Medulla oblongata – Temperature regulation

23) Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from

(1) Effector organs to CNS
(2) Receptor to CNS
(3) CNS to receptors
(4) CNS to muscles

24) Repolarization during nerve conduction takes place because of :-

(1) Equal amount or part of Na+ & K+ move out across axolemma
(2) Influx of Na+
(3) Efflux of Na+
(4) Efflux of K+

25) Which of the following contains centres which control respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and
gastric secretions?

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Pons
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Midbrain

26) Excitement, Pleasure, Rage, fear & Motivation are combined function of :-

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Limbic lobe
(4) All of these

27) Most primitive nervous system is present in :-

(1) Cockroach
(2) House-fly
(3) Hydra
(4) Human

28) Which part of the human brain controls the urge for eating and drinking?

(1) Forebrain
(2) Midbrain
(3) Hindbrain
(4) Spinal cord

29) Thalamus in human brain

(1) is surrounded by cerebrum.
(2) acts as a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling.
(3) is under the direct control of hypothalamus.
Which of the following option is most appropriate?

(1) 1 and 2 are correct.

(2) 2 and 3 are correct.
(3) only 3 is correct.
(4) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

30) Multipolar neurons are found in the

(1) Retina of eye

(2) Embryonic stage
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Cerebral cortex

31) During polarisation, ionic gradient across the resting membrane are maintained by :-

(1) active transport of ions

(2) passive transport of ions
(3) Na+ V.G.C.
(4) K+, V.G.C.

32) Autonomic nervous system consists of :

(1) Brain and spinal cord

(2) Cranial and spinal nerves
(3) Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
(4) Brain and cranial nerves

33) A canal passes through mid-brain is known as:-

(1) Foramen of Monroe

(2) Cerebral aqueduct
(3) Cerebral peduncle
(4) Arbor vitae

34) Identify X and Y.

(1) X → Chemical synapse; Y → Electrical synapse

(2) X → Stimulatory synapse; Y → Inhibitory synapse
(3) X → Inhibitory synapse; Y → Stimulatory synapse
(4) X → Electrical synapse; Y → Chemical synapse

35) Schwann cell are found in :-

(1) Myelinated nerve fibres

(2) Unmyelinated nerve fibres
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Myelinated nerve tracts

SECTION-2

1) The new potential developed in the post-synaptic neuron is :-

(1) Excitatory
(2) Inhibitory
(3) Either excitatory or inhibitory
(4) Neither excitatory nor inhibitory

2) The axon is a long fibre, the distal end of which is branched. Each branch terminates as a bulb-
like structure called the

(1) Dendrites
(2) Node of Ranvier
(3) Myelin sheath
(4) Synaptic knob

3) Axoplasm contains high concentration of :-

(1) K+
(2) Na+
(3) Cl–
(4) Ca2+

4) The region responsible for complex functions like memory, communication and intersensory
associations is :-

(1) Motor area

(2) Sensory area
(3) Association area
(4) Broca's area
5) Identify the transition of stage at point B :

(1) Depolarization – Repolarization

(2) Repolarization – Depolarization
(3) Polarization – Depolarization
(4) Depolarization – Polarization

6) Structural and functional unit of nervous system is...

(1) Nephron
(2) Neuron
(3) Nephridia
(4) None of these

7) Corpora quadrigemina is located in -

(1) Dorsal portion of Hindbrain.

(2) Ventral portion of Midbrain.
(3) Dorsal portion of the Midbrain.
(4) Lateral portion of the Midbrain.

8) In integrated system, which system provides an organised network of point to point connection for
quick co-ordination ?

(1) Endocrine system

(2) Nervous system
(3) Muscular system
(4) Both (1) & (2)

9) Part of mammalian brain controlling muscular coordination, equilibrium and posture is -

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Corpus callosum
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Cerebellum

10) Assertion: Neurons are excitable cells.

Reason: Neurons are found abundantly throughout the body.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, assertion is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

11) Transmission of nerve impulse or action potential is not possible in those neurons which are :-

(1) Discontinuous myelinated with node of ranvier

(2) Continuous myelinated without node of ranvier
(3) Non myelinated axon/neuron
(4) Transmission is always possible

12) Mid brain is located between (a) and (b):

(1) a = Cerebellar hemisphere b = Medulla oblongata

(2) a = Hypothalamas/Thalamus b = Pons
(3) a = Pons b = cerebellum
(4) a = Diencephalon b = cerebellum

13) For most excitable cells, the threshold stimulus is

(1) + 40mV
(2) – 55 to - 60mV
(3) + 60mV
(4) – 70mV

14) Cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called as :-

(1) Corpus albicans

(2) Thalamus
(3) Corpus callosum
(4) 2 & 3 both

15) Sensory cranial nerves are :-

(1) V, VII, IX, X

(2) I, II, VIII
(3) III, IV, VI, XI
(4) X, XI, XII
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 2 1 2 1 4 1 3 4 3 2 1 2 1 2 3 3 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 3 2 3 3 4 3 1 1 1 4 1 4 4 3

SECTION-2

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 1 4 4 4 4 2 4 4 1 3 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-1

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 1 2 4 3 1 3 1 2 4 2 3 4 1 3 1 3 1 2 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 2 3 1 2 1 4 3 3 1 1 3 2 2

SECTION-2

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 1 1 1 2 4 2 4 1 1 2 4 2 2 1

BOTANY

SECTION-1

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 2 1 4 3 1 1 2 2 3 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 2 4 2 2 4 1 1 2 2 3 2 3 4

SECTION-2

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 3 1 4 1 1 2 3 3 1 1 3 4 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-1

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 2 3 2 1 2 2 3 1 1 2 2 4 1 3 1 4 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 4 2 4 3 4 3 1 1 4 1 3 2 4 3

SECTION-2

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 1 3 3 2 3 2 4 2 2 2 2 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Surface tension acts perpendicular to the imaginary line, so it is line which defines direction of force
and not surface tension, hence it is a scalar quantity, also it does not obeys vector laws.

2)

g′ = g – Reω2cos2λ ⇒ g' < g

except for λ = 90° i.e. for poles.

6)

g=
g∝R

7)
⇒ R increases and P decreases

8)

⇒ ⇒ ⇒ h = 3R

9) F ∝ Area ∝ D2
F1 = 4 × F = 80 kg wt

11)

Utotal =
=

12)

13)

Escape velocity v = is independent of angle at projection

15)

Same pressure at same depth.

16)

As L = mvr = contant
and rC > rB > rA
so vA > vB > vC ⇒ KA > KB > KC

18)

19)

put gh = gd

⇒ d = 2h

20)
 21)

22)

As length of both wires increases by same amount

Δℓ1 = Δℓ2

25)

x = 4m

27) =
⇒ T2 = 8T1 = hr.

28)

gequator = g – ω2Re
gpole > gequator

33)

for 0 < r ≤ Re ⇒ g∝r

for r ³ Re ⇒

35)

U= ,K= and E =
For a satellite U,K and E varies with r and also U and E remains negative whereas K remain always
potitive.
 36)

Additional kinetic energy = TE2 – TE1

37) PBottom = P0 + ρgH

4 atm = 1 atm + ρgH
ρgH = 3 atm = 3 × 105 Pa
H = 30 m
v=

38)

According to Bernoulli's theorem.

So if A↓ v and P↓
and if A v↓ and P

39) Let radius of big drop is 'R'

So R = (n1/3) (r) (For two drop n = 2)
R = (21/3) (r)
Surface energy U = (T) (A)
U = (T) (4πR2)
U = (T) [4π(21/3r)2]
U = (T) 4(π) 22/3 r2 = (T) (28/3)π(r2)

40) W = T(2ΔA)
W = 20[2 × (12×10 – 6 × 10)]

W = 2400 erg

41)

Apply energy conservation

42)

TE = – KE = –

43)
 45) F = η A

0.002 = 0.001 ×
d = 5 × 10–4 = 0.0005 m

46)

NCERT pg # 197

48)

VT =
Here r and η unchanged

(VT)Silver = = = 0.1 m/s

49)

50)

CHEMISTRY

51)
 53) M1V1 = M2V2

M2 = 0.5 M
N2 = 2 × 0.5 = 1 N

56)

m=

1=
Weight of solvent (g) = 500 g

58)

If, intermolecular attractive forces between A – A and B – B are stronger than those A – B then it
show positive deviation from ideal behaviour.

73)

76)

82)

BOTANY

101)

New NCERT Page no. 73

102)

New NCERT Page no. 73-76

103)

NCERT Page No. 91.

104)
NCERT Page No. 92.

105)

NCERT Page 89.

106)

ALLEN Module Page No-118.

107)

NCERT Page No-89.

108)

NCERT Page No-93.

109)

NCERT Page No-89.

110)

NCERT Page No-89.

111)

NCERT page no. 75

113) NCERT_2021-22_PG_89

127) Suberin is present in endodermis

129)

New NCERT Page no. 73

135) Fact. NCERT Page 90

136)

New NCERT Page no. 72

137)

NCERT Based.

138) New NCERT Page no. 72

140) NCERT_2021-22_PG_89
 143)

Allen module Page no. 127

148) Allen module pg- 108, ques no- 40

149)

New NCERT Page no. 76 & 77

ZOOLOGY

170)

NCERT # XI, Pg. 321

178)

NCERT Page no. 321

179)

NCERT - [Pg-321,M]

180)

Multipolar neurons–cerebral cortex Bipolar neurons - retina of eye Unipolar neurons – embryonic
stage
NCERT Pg. no. 317

182)

NCERT Pg.#119

183)

NCERT Pg. # 321 para II

189)

NCERT, Pg. # 321, 1st Paragraph

190)

NCERT Pg. No. 233 Fig 18.2

192)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 236

193) Ncert Pg No. 230

197) NCERT Pg.No: 321